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Pavement Ends
Pavement Ends
Expect a change in the road surface
Road Narrows
The pavement ahead narrows
Yield to other traffic
Always stop completely
Left Curve
Left Curve
Slow down for left curve
Low Clearance
Low Clearance
Be sure your load is not higher than 12ft 6in
Watch For Trucks
Watch For Trucks
Slow your speed and watch for trucks entering or crossing the highway
Men Working
Watch for men working in the path of traffic
Two Way Traffic
Two Way Traffic
Get ready to enter a two way street
Narrow Bridge
Narrow Bridge
Stay carefully in the right lane
Shoulder Drop Off
Shoulder Drop Off
Watch for a drop from the pavement edge to the shoulder
Slower Traffic Keep Right
Slower Traffic Keep Right
Keep in the right hand lane when driving slow
Watch for a temporary route around the main road
US 87
Know that US highway 87 runs right and left ahead
Slow down for a sharp rise in the roadway
One Way
One Way
Go straight ahead or turn left
Right/Left Curve
Right/Left Curve
Slow down for a right or left turn
Four Way Intersection
Four Way Intersection
Watch right and left for other traffic
Turn Left From Both Lanes
Turn Left From Both Lanes
Turn left from either lane
Do Not Cross Double Yellow Line To Pass
Never pass another car here
Do Not Pass When Solid Yellow Line Is In Your Lane
Remember to pass only when the way is clear when you have a yellow line in your lane
Slow down for a low place in the road
Always stop
Soft Shoulder
Soft Shoulder
Be extra careful not to run off of the pavement
158 Texas
Know the Texas highway
Right and Left Curve
Slow down for a left and right turn
Crossroad Traffic
Watch out for a crossroad traffic
Highway Intersection 1000 Ft
Watch for a very dangerous crossing
Watch For Ice On Bridge
Slow down a hazardous condition may exist on bridge
Do Not Enter
Do Not Enter
Stop before entering the street ahead
Winding Road
Winding Road
Slow down for a winding road
Follow a temporary route to the left
End Construction
End Construction
Return to normal highway speed after passing
Slow Down
Slow down for a very dangerous intersection or curve
35 Mph
35 Mph
Slow down to at least 35 miles per hour for the curve ahead
Loose Gravel
Loose Gravel
Do not apply the brakes suddenly or make sharp turns
Watch For Trucks
Watch For Trucks
Watch out for trucks entering or crossing the highway ahead
Side Traffic
Watch for side road traffic to the right
Slow down and be ready to stop
Drive To Right
Drive to the right
Speed Limit 55
Speed Limit 55
Drive at least 55 miles per hour
Yield To Entering Traffic
Yield To Entering Traffic
Be ready to yield to other traffic entering the same lane
Form One Line|Left
Prepare to merge into only one lane of traffic
Stay On Right Side Of Road
Stay on the right hand side of the road and watch for approaching traffic
Right Then Left Turn
Right Then Left Turn
Slow down for a right and left turn
Exit 25 MPH
Exit 25 MPH
Slow to 25 miles per hour to exit the expressway
T Intersection
T Intersection
Watch right and left for cross traffic
One Way/right arrow
One Way/right arrow
Go straight ahead or turn right
School Zone
School Zone
Watch for children
Road Closed
Road Closed
Look for a detour or turn around and go back
Circle Ahead
Slow down for intersection built around a circle
Climbing Lane Ahead
Use the lane only if you drive a truck
Y Intersection
Y Intersection
Slow down for a “Y intersection”
Emergency Stopping Only
Emergency Stopping Only
Stop only in an emergency, such as a vehicle failure
Left and Right Turn
Slow down for a left and right turn
Loop 270
Understand that you are on a short state highway in a city or urban area
Always stop completely
Speed Limit 50
Speed Limit 50
Drive no faster 50 miles per hour day or night
Pass Either Side of Sign
Pass either side of the sign- divided roadway ahead
Circle Intersection
Circle Intersection
Slow down for intersections built around a circle
Look out for a train
Be very careful to avoid skidding in wet weather
Road Construction Ahead
Watch for machinery and workers
Pedestrians Crossing
Pedestrians Crossing
Slow down, watch for people crossing the street on foot
Downgrade In Road
Prepare to reduce speed for a downgrade
35 MPH
35 MPH
Know that the highest safe speed for the curve ahead is 35 miles per hour
Drive To The Right
Drive to the right of the road
Watch for a hazard in or near the roadway

Excess body fat increases chronic disease and health risks. One of these diseases is sleep apnea and is defined as
Excess weight in the upper body-particulary around the lungs and pharynx
Basal metabolism is the energy expended
when resting, but awake, and in a fasting state.
All of the following are true about contributors to energy expenditure except
fidgeting accounts for 40 percent of total energy expenditure.
The method for determining energy expenditure that involves the measurement of heat given off by the body during a select period of time in an insulated chamber is
direct calorimetry.
Xenical is a weight loss drug that works in the digestive system
to block digestion of about one-third of the fat in the food we eat.
When attempting to use body fat content to define obesity, body fat above ____ for women warrants an obesity diagnosis.
When attempting to use body fat content to define obesity, body fat above ____ for men warrants an obesity diagnosis.
Which of the following is not a way to estimate body fat?
Body mass index
When individuals lose weight quickly, most of the weight lost is from
water, glycogen, and muscle tissue.
Changing one’s frame of mind related to weight control and nutrition is called
cognitive restructuring.
Choosing a diet low in sodium means knowing which foods are high in sodium and which foods are low in sodium. Which item has the highest level of sodium
deli meat.
Hypertension is defined as a systolic/diastolic blood pressure at or above ___________ mm Hg.
Water regulates body temperature through heat loss via
Joe is a wrestler and during his workouts he loses 2 pounds. How much water would he have to drink to replenish this water weight loss?
6 cups.
Which of the following portions of food would have the least sodium?
Animal Crackers, 1 ounce
The typical American diet contains approximately ___ milligrams of sodium
Potassium is found in the largest quantities in
fruits and vegetables.
The major source of chloride in the diet is
The DASH diet for reduction of hypertension
recommends 2-3 servings per day of low-fat dairy products
The most practical advice for prevention of hypertension is
maintain a healthy weight.
Which food contains preformed vitamin A?
When a cell membrane is damaged by free radicals, which specific component of the cell membrane is damaged?
Donate electrons to free radicals.
Vitamin E functions as a(n)
Food processing
decreases vitamin E content of foods.
To bolster immune function, evidence supports
consuming 5 – 9 servings of a variety of fruits and vegetables per day.
Which of the following population groups has increased vitamin C requirements?
Which of the following is converted to vitamin A in the body?
Which fat-soluble vitamin is important for the health of epithelial cells because it promotes mucus production?
Vitamin A
Dark green or orange vegetables and/or fruits are recommended at least every other day to provide a source of
Vitamin A
A variety of factors can increase or decrease osteoporosis risk. Indicate which person is at the highest risk for osteoporosis.
Female, smokes, slender frame, and sedentary lifestyle.
The mixture of calcium and phosphorus that mineralizes bone is called
Higher intakes of all of the following are associated with increased bone mass except
To prevent bone loss, a woman at risk for osteoporosis could
increase weight-bearing exercise.
increase dietary intake of calcium and vitamin D.
consult a physician about estrogen replacement.
All of the following deplete bone mass except
excess body weight
Calcium absorption is increased by all of the following except
old age.
Blood calcium concentration is regulated by
The most nutrient-dense calcium food source is
Efficient deposition of calcium and phosphorus in bones is the net effect of
Vitamin D
Aging increases dietary needs for
vitamin D
Adequate folate intake during pregnancy is imperative for the prevention of neural tube defects like spina bifida. Which option below has the greatest amount of folate per serving?
Prenatal vitamin with 400 micrograms of folate
This vitamin, when consumed during pregnancy, can help prevent neural tube defects like spina bifida.
Folate/Folic Acid
An important role of vitamin K is the synthesis of
The nutrient that prevents beriberi is
Niacin is necessary to prevent the disease
Intestinal bacteria can make this B-vitamin in adequate amounts to meet human needs.
Vitamin B-12 is supplied almost entirely by
Animal Products
Pernicious anemia is most commonly caused by
inadequate B-12 absorption
How many sources of non-heme iron are in the following meal: Tuna sandwich on enriched bread with milk and an apple.
Worldwide, the most prevalent nutrient deficiency is of
Determine which activity would benefit most from carbohydrate loading?
Long Distance Running
What is the name of the high energy compound that cells use directly to fuel other chemical reactions?
Adenosine triphosphate
Anaerobic glucose breakdown provides most of the energy for sports activities lasting
30 seconds to 2 minutes
Which of the following is true about protein as an energy source?
The need for protein as an energy source is greater for endurance athletes than for those who body build or lift weights.
If an athlete’s body fat level is too high, what is the best weight loss approach?
Eat about 200 to 500 kcalories less per day.
Carbohydrate loading
involves a tapering in the intensity of workouts with a corresponding increase in the percentage of carbohydrate intake.
Which of the following is true about the protein intake for athletes?
Most athletes eating a variety of foods will easily meet their protein needs.
If a woman athlete is not menstruating regularly, she should do all the following except
exercise more intensely.
A well-tolerated exercise for overweight people is
Which of the following does not have an ergogenic effect according to your text?

B) The company was founded as, and still is, a “virtual” retailer with no inventory.
6) Which of the following statements regarding Amazon.com is FALSE?
A) The company was opened by Jeff Bezos in 1995.
B) The company was founded as, and still is, a “virtual” retailer with no inventory.
C) The company is now a world-class leader in warehouse automation and management.
D) The company uses both United Parcel Service and the U.S. Postal Service as shippers.
E) Amazon obtains its competitive advantage through inventory management.
E) All of the above are functions of inventory.
7) Which of the following is a function of inventory?
A) to decouple various parts of the production process
B) to provide a selection of goods for anticipated customer demand and to separate the firm from fluctuations in that demand
C) to take advantage of quantity discounts
D) to hedge against inflation
E) All of the above are functions of inventory.
D) to minimize holding costs
8) Which of the following would NOT generally be a motive for a firm to hold inventories?
A) to decouple various parts of the production process
B) to provide a selection of goods for anticipated customer demand and to separate the firm from fluctuations in that demand
C) to take advantage of quantity discounts
D) to minimize holding costs
E) to hedge against inflation
D) safety stock inventory
9) Which of the following is NOT one of the four main types of inventory?
A) raw material inventory
B) work-in-process inventory
C) maintenance/repair/operating supply inventory
D) safety stock inventory
E) finished-goods inventory
D) ABC analysis is based on the presumption that all items must be tightly controlled to produce important cost savings.
8) Which of the following statements about ABC analysis is FALSE?
A) ABC analysis is based on the presumption that controlling the few most important items produces the vast majority of inventory savings.
B) In ABC analysis, “A” items should have tighter physical inventory control than “B” or “C” items have.
C) In ABC analysis, forecasting methods for “C” items may be less sophisticated than for “A” items.
D) ABC analysis is based on the presumption that all items must be tightly controlled to produce important cost savings.
E) Criteria other than annual dollar volume, such as high holding cost or delivery problems, can determine item classification in ABC analysis.
D) ABC analysis suggests that all items require the same high degree of control.
9) All EXCEPT which of the following statements about ABC analysis are true?
A) In ABC analysis, inventory may be categorized by measures other than dollar volume.
B) ABC analysis categorizes on-hand inventory into three groups based on annual dollar volume.
C) ABC analysis is an application of the Pareto principle.
D) ABC analysis suggests that all items require the same high degree of control.
E) ABC analysis suggests that there are the critical few and the trivial many inventory items.
B) there are usually a few critical items, and many items that are less critical.
10) ABC analysis is based upon the principle that:
A) all items in inventory must be monitored very closely.
B) there are usually a few critical items, and many items that are less critical.
C) an item is critical if its usage is high.
D) more time should be spent on class “C” items because there are many more of them.
E) as with grade distributions in many MBA courses, there should be more medium-level “B” items than either “A” or “C” items.
E) annual dollar volume
11) ABC analysis divides on-hand inventory into three classes, generally based upon which of the following?
A) item quality
B) unit price
C) the number of units on hand
D) annual demand
E) annual dollar volume
B) eliminates annual inventory adjustments.
12) Cycle counting:
A) is a process by which inventory records are verified once a year.
B) eliminates annual inventory adjustments.
C) provides a measure of inventory turnover.
D) assumes that all inventory records must be verified with the same frequency.
E) assumes that the most frequently used items must be counted more frequently.
C) Effective control of all goods leaving the facility is one applicable technique.
13) Which of the following statements regarding control of service inventories is TRUE?
A) Service inventory is a fictional concept, because services are intangible.
B) Service inventory needs no safety stock, because there’s no such thing as a service stockout.
C) Effective control of all goods leaving the facility is one applicable technique.
D) Service inventory has carrying costs but no setup costs.
E) Good personnel selection, training, and discipline are easy.
D) allows more rapid identification of errors and consequent remedial action than is possible with annual physical inventory.
14) Among the advantages of cycle counting is that it:
A) makes the annual physical inventory more acceptable to management.
B) does not require the detailed records necessary when annual physical inventory is used.
C) does not require highly trained people.
D) allows more rapid identification of errors and consequent remedial action than is possible with annual physical inventory.
E) does not need to be performed for less expensive items.
E) All of the above are elements of inventory holding costs.
3) Which of the following is an element of inventory holding costs?
A) housing costs
B) material handling costs
C) investment costs
D) pilferage, scrap, and obsolescence
E) All of the above are elements of inventory holding costs.
E) pilferage, scrap, and obsolescence
4) Which category of inventory holding costs has a much higher percentage than average for rapid-change industries such as PCs and cell phones?
A) housing costs
B) material handling costs
C) labor cost
D) investment costs
E) pilferage, scrap, and obsolescence
C) timing of orders and order quantity.
10) The two most basic inventory questions answered by the typical inventory model are:
A) timing of orders and cost of orders.
B) order quantity and cost of orders.
C) timing of orders and order quantity.
D) order quantity and service level.
E) ordering cost and carrying cost.
D) Production and use can occur simultaneously.
11) Which of the following is NOT an assumption of the economic order quantity model shown below?

Q* =√2DS/H

A) Demand is known, constant, and independent.
B) Lead time is known and constant.
C) Quantity discounts are not possible.
D) Production and use can occur simultaneously.
E) The only variable costs are setup cost and holding (or carrying) cost.

D) to minimize the sum of setup cost and holding cost
12) What is the primary purpose of the basic economic order quantity model shown below?

Q* =√2DS/H

A) to calculate the reorder point, so that replenishments take place at the proper time
B) to minimize the sum of carrying cost and holding cost
C) to maximize the customer service level
D) to minimize the sum of setup cost and holding cost
E) to calculate the optimum safety stock

C) is one-half of the economic order quantity.
13) If the actual order quantity is the economic order quantity in a problem that meets the assumptions of the economic order quantity model shown below, the average amount of inventory on hand:

Q* = √2DS/H

A) is smaller than the holding cost per unit.
B) is zero.
C) is one-half of the economic order quantity.
D) is affected by the amount of product cost.
E) goes down if the holding cost per unit goes down.

C) 110
14) A certain type of computer costs $1,000, and the annual holding cost is 25% of the value of the item. Annual demand is 10,000 units, and the order cost is $150 per order. What is the approximate economic order quantity?
A) 16
B) 70
C) 110
D) 183
E) 600
C) total inventory-based costs.
15) Most inventory models attempt to minimize:
A) the likelihood of a stockout.
B) the number of items ordered.
C) total inventory-based costs.
D) the number of orders placed.
E) the safety stock.
A) increase by about 41%.
16) In the basic EOQ model, if the cost of placing an order doubles, and all other values remain constant, the EOQ will:
A) increase by about 41%.
B) increase by 100%.
C) increase by 200%.
D) increase, but more data is needed to say by how much.
E) either increase or decrease.
C) 141
17) In the basic EOQ model, if D = 6000 per year, S = $100, and holding cost = $5 per unit per month, what is the economic order quantity?
A) 24
B) 100
C) 141
D) 490
E) 600
E) All of the above statements are true.
18) Which of the following statements about the basic EOQ model is TRUE?
A) If the ordering cost were to double, the EOQ would rise.
B) If annual demand were to double, the EOQ would increase.
C) If the carrying cost were to increase, the EOQ would fall.
D) If annual demand were to double, the number of orders per year would increase.
E) All of the above statements are true.
D) If annual demand were to double, the EOQ would also double.
19) Which of the following statements about the basic EOQ model is FALSE?
A) If the setup cost were to decrease, the EOQ would fall.
B) If annual demand were to double, the number of orders per year would increase.
C) If the ordering cost were to increase, the EOQ would rise.
D) If annual demand were to double, the EOQ would also double.
E) All of the above statements are true.
B) one-third as large.
20) A product whose EOQ is 40 units experiences a decrease in ordering cost from $90 per order to $10 per order. The revised EOQ is:
A) three times as large.
B) one-third as large.
C) nine times as large.
D) one-ninth as large.
E) cannot be determined
B) increased by less than 50%.
21) A product whose EOQ is 400 units experiences a 50% increase in demand. The new EOQ is:
A) unchanged.
B) increased by less than 50%.
C) increased by 50%.
D) increased by more than 50%.
E) cannot be determined
C) $3.00
22) For a certain item, the cost-minimizing order quantity obtained with the basic EOQ model is 200 units, and the total annual inventory (carrying and setup) cost is $600. What is the inventory carrying cost per unit per year for this item?
A) $1.50
B) $2.00
C) $3.00
D) $150.00
E) not enough data to determine
B) $800
23) A product has a demand of 4000 units per year. Ordering cost is $20, and holding cost is $4 per unit per year. The EOQ model is appropriate. The cost-minimizing solution for this product will cost ________ per year in total annual inventory (holding and setup) costs.
A) $400
B) $800
C) $1200
D) Zero; this is a class C item.
E) Cannot be determined because the unit price is not known.
B) 200 units per order
24) A product has a demand of 4000 units per year. Ordering cost is $20, and holding cost is $4 per unit per year. The cost-minimizing solution for this product is to order:
A) all 4000 units at one time.
B) 200 units per order.
C) every 20 days.
D) 10 times per year.
E) none of the above
E) All of the above are true.
25) Which of the following statements regarding the reorder point is TRUE?
A) The reorder point is that quantity that triggers an action to restock an item.
B) There is a reorder point even if lead time and demand during lead time are constant.
C) The reorder point is larger than d × L if safety stock is present.
D) A shorter lead time implies a smaller reorder point.
E) All of the above are true.
B) Fourteen is the reorder point, and 100 is the order quantity.
26) An inventory decision rule states, “When the inventory level goes down to 14 gearboxes, 100 gearboxes will be ordered.” Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A) One hundred is the reorder point, and 14 is the order quantity.
B) Fourteen is the reorder point, and 100 is the order quantity.
C) The number 100 is a function of demand during lead time.
D) Fourteen is the safety stock, and 100 is the reorder point.
E) None of the above is true.
B) It relaxes the assumption that all the order quantity is received at one time.
27) Which of the following statements regarding the production order quantity model is TRUE?
A) It applies only to items produced in the firm’s own production departments.
B) It relaxes the assumption that all the order quantity is received at one time.
C) It relaxes the assumption that the demand rate is constant.
D) It minimizes the total production costs.
E) It minimizes inventory.
D) All else equal, the smaller the ratio of demand rate to production rate, the larger is the production order quantity.
28) Which of these statements about the production order quantity model is FALSE?
A) The production order quantity model is appropriate when the assumptions of the basic EOQ model are met, except that receipt is noninstantaneous.
B) Because receipt is noninstantaneous, some units are used immediately and not stored in inventory.
C) Average inventory is less than one-half of the production order quantity.
D) All else equal, the smaller the ratio of demand rate to production rate, the larger is the production order quantity.
E) None of the above is false.
C) 184
29) The assumptions of the production order quantity model are met in a situation where annual demand is 3650 units, setup cost is $50, holding cost is $12 per unit per year, the daily demand rate is 10 and the daily production rate is 100. What is the production order quantity for this problem?
A) 139
B) 174
C) 184
D) 365
E) 548
B) 245
30) A production order quantity problem has a daily demand rate = 10 and a daily production rate = 50. The production order quantity for this problem is approximately 612 units. What is the average inventory for this problem?
A) 61
B) 245
C) 300
D) 306
E) 490
E) minimizes the sum of holding, ordering, and product costs.
31) When quantity discounts are allowed, the cost-minimizing order quantity:
A) is always an EOQ quantity.
B) minimizes the sum of holding and ordering costs.
C) minimizes the unit purchase price.
D) may be a quantity below that at which one qualifies for that price.
E) minimizes the sum of holding, ordering, and product costs.
D) The larger the annual demand, the less attractive a discount schedule will be.
32) Which of the following statements about quantity discounts is FALSE?
A) The cost-minimizing solution may or may not be where annual holding costs equal annual ordering costs.
B) In inventory management, item cost becomes relevant to order quantity decisions when a quantity discount is available.
C) If carrying costs are expressed as a percentage of value, EOQ is larger at each lower price in the discount schedule.
D) The larger the annual demand, the less attractive a discount schedule will be.
E) The smaller the ordering cost, the less attractive a discount schedule will be.
E) Cannot be determined without lead time data.
3) If the standard deviation of demand is six per week, demand is 50 per week, and the desired service level is 95%, approximately what is the statistical safety stock?
A) 8 units
B) 10 units
C) 16 units
D) 64 units
E) Cannot be determined without lead time data.
A) 41
4) A specific product has demand during lead time of 100 units, with a standard deviation during lead time of 25 units. What safety stock (approximately) provides a 95% service level?
A) 41
B) 55
C) 133
D) 140
E) 165
E) more than 40
5) Demand for dishwasher water pumps is 8 per day. The standard deviation of demand is 3 per day, and the order lead time is four days. The service level is 95%. What should the reorder point be?
A) about 18
B) about 24
C) about 32
D) about 38
E) more than 40
D) control the likelihood of a stockout due to variable demand and/or lead time.
6) The purpose of safety stock is to:
A) replace failed units with good ones.
B) eliminate the possibility of a stockout.
C) eliminate the likelihood of a stockout due to erroneous inventory tally.
D) control the likelihood of a stockout due to variable demand and/or lead time.
E) protect the firm from a sudden decrease in demand.
D) setting the level of safety stock so that a given stockout risk is not exceeded.
7) The proper quantity of safety stock is typically determined by:
A) using a single-period model.
B) carrying sufficient safety stock so as to eliminate all stockouts.
C) multiplying the EOQ by the desired service level.
D) setting the level of safety stock so that a given stockout risk is not exceeded.
E) minimizing total costs.
D) adding safety stock.
8) If demand is not uniform and constant, then stockout risks can be controlled by:
A) increasing the EOQ.
B) spreading annual demand over more frequent, but smaller, orders.
C) raising the selling price to reduce demand.
D) adding safety stock.
E) reducing the reorder point.
C) 13 units
9) If daily demand is normally distributed with a mean of 15 and standard deviation of 5, and lead time is constant at 4 days, a 90 percent service level will require how much safety stock?
A) 7 units
B) 10 units
C) 13 units
D) 16 units
E) 26 units
C) 49 units
10) If daily demand is constant at 10 units per day, and lead time averages 12 days with a standard deviation of 3 days, 95 percent service requires how much safety stock?
A) 28 units
B) 30 units
C) 49 units
D) 59 units
E) 114 units
C) 154 units
11) In a safety stock problem where both demand and lead time are variable, demand averages 150 units per day with a daily standard deviation of 16, and lead time averages 5 days with a standard deviation of 1 day. What is the standard deviation of demand during lead time?
A) 15 units
B) 100 units
C) 154 units
D) 500 units
E) 13,125 units
A) Christmas trees
1) Which of the following items is mostly likely managed using a single-period order model?
A) Christmas trees
B) canned food at the grocery store
C) automobiles at a dealership
D) metal for a manufacturing process
E) gas sold to a gas station
A) inventory has limited value after a certain period of time.
2) The main trait of a single-period model is that:
A) inventory has limited value after a certain period of time.
B) it has the largest EOQ sizes.
C) the order quantity should usually equal the expected value of demand.
D) supply is limited.
E) the cost of a shortage cannot be determined accurately.
A) .60
3) A local club is selling Christmas trees and deciding how many to stock for the month of December. If demand is normally distributed with a mean of 100 and standard deviation of 20, trees have no salvage value at the end of the month, trees cost $20, and trees sell for $50 what is the service level?
A) .60
B) .20
C) .84
D) .40
E) unable to determine given the above information
C) .07
4) Suppose that papers for a newspaper stand cost $0.40 and sell for $0.80. They currently have no salvage value. If the stand owner is able to find an outlet that would provide a salvage value of $0.10, what would be the increase in service level?
A) .5
B) 0
C) .07
D) 1
E) unable to determine given only the above information
E) B and D
5) Service level is:
A) the probability of stocking out.
B) the probability of not stocking out.
C) something that should be minimized in retail.
D) calculated as the cost of a shortage divided by (the cost of shortage + the cost of overage) for single-period models.
E) B and D
D) 7
6) A bakery wants to determine how many trays of doughnuts it should prepare each day. Demand is normal with a mean of 5 trays and standard deviation of 1 tray. If the owner wants a service level of at least 95%, how many trays should he prepare (rounded to the nearest whole tray)? Assume doughnuts have no salvage value after the day is complete.
A) 5
B) 4
C) 6
D) 7
E) unable to determine with the above information
A) a stockout can occur during the review period as well as during the lead time.
2) The fixed-period inventory system requires more safety stock than a fixed-quantity system because:
A) a stockout can occur during the review period as well as during the lead time.
B) this model is used for products that have large standard deviations of demand.
C) this model is used for products that require very high service levels.
D) replenishment is not instantaneous.
E) setup costs and holding costs are large.
D) since there is no count of inventory during the review period, a stockout is possible.
3) A disadvantage of the fixed-period inventory system is that:
A) it involves higher ordering costs than the fixed quantity inventory system.
B) additional inventory records are required.
C) the average inventory level is decreased.
D) since there is no count of inventory during the review period, a stockout is possible.
E) orders usually are for larger quantities.
E) A and B
4) What is the difference between P and Q inventory systems?
A) order size
B) order spacing
C) maximum service level
D) lead time length
E) A and B
A) perpetual inventory system
5) Which of the following is a requirement of Q systems?
A) perpetual inventory system
B) constant order spacing
C) variable lead time
D) constant demand
E) all of the above
A) fixed quantity, fixed period
6) Q is to ________ systems as P is to ________ systems.
A) fixed quantity, fixed period
B) variable demand, constant demand
C) variable lead time, variable demand
D) variable quantity, variable period
E) quality, price
E) safety stock
7) Which of the following should be higher in P systems than Q systems?
A) lead time
B) demand
C) order size
D) order spacing
E) safety stock
B) there is no physical count of inventory items when an item is withdrawn.
8) An advantage of the fixed-period inventory system is that:
A) safety stock will be lower than it would be under a fixed-quantity inventory system.
B) there is no physical count of inventory items when an item is withdrawn.
C) no inventory records are required.
D) orders usually are for smaller order quantities.
E) the average inventory level is reduced.

shaken together
brain covering
process of producing a picture
sensation, feeling
spinal cord
nerve root
abnormal fear
buring sensation
nerve, nerves
having an affinity for
space between two neurons or between a neuron and a receptor organ
myelin sheath
white protective covering over some parts of the spinal cord and the axon of most peripheral nerves
root-like structures of a nerve that receive impulses to the brain and spinal cord
pia meter
layer of the meninges that is located nearest to the brain and spinal cord
seven vital body functions are regulated
nerves are the division of the autonomic nervous system that prepare the body for emergencies and stress
network of intersecting nerves
cranial nerves are part of the __ nervous system
relays sensory stimuli from the spinal cord and midbrain to the cerebral cortex
neurons carry impulses away from the brain and spinal cord
connects the brain and spinal cord
controls vital body functions
coordinates muscular activity
medulla oblongata
controls basic survival functions
uppermost layer of the brain
physician who specializes in admistering anesthetic agents
profound state of unconsciousness marked by the absence of spontaneous eye movements, no response to painful stimuli, and the lack of speech
drug aka as tranquilizer
sensory perception that has no basis in exernal stimulation
excessive fear of heights
headache characterized by throbbing pain on one side of the head
group of disorders involving the parts of the brain that control thought, memory, and language
medication used to induce anesthesia
chronic neurological condition characterized by recurrent episodes of seizures of varying severity
nerve inflammation that results in pain, burning, and tingling through thr thigh, leg, and foot
acute condition that is characterized by confusin, disorientation, disordered thinking and memory, agitation, and hallucinations
inflammation of spinal cord also means inflammation of bone marrow
abnormal fear of being in small or enclosed spaces
trigeminal neuralgia
severe lightning-like pain due to an inflammation of the 5th cranial nerve
developmental reading disorder
cerebral contusion
brusing of brain tissue as the result of a head injury
anxiety disorders
excessive, irrational dread of everyday situations or fear that is out of proportion to the real dange ina situation
low-grade chronic depression with symptoms that are milder than those of severe depression but are present on a majority of days for two or more years
disorder is a condition in which an individual acts as if he or she has a physical or mental illness when he or she is not really sick
antipsychotic drug
adminstered to treat symptoms of severe disorders of thinking and mood that are associated with neurological and psychiatric illnesses such as schizophrenia, mania, and delusion disorders
process of recording the electrical activity of the brain through the use of electrodes attached to the scalp
refers to burning or prickling sensation that is usually felt in the hands, arms, legs, or feet
contagious viral infection of the brainstem and spinal cord, which can lead to paralysis
hemorrhagic stroke
occurs when a blood vessel in the brain leaks
absence seizure
brief disturbance in brain function in which there is a loss of awareness
psyhotropic drug
acts primarlly on the central nervous system where it produces temporary changes affecting the mind, emotions, and behavior
bipolar disorder
moods shifts
jarring of the brain can cause
transient ischemic
attack and her doctors were concerned that this is a warning of an increased stroke risk
surgical incision into the thalamus
multiple sclerosis
autoimmune disease is characterized bhy inflammation that causes demyelination of the myelin sheath
unable to sleep well
unable to understand written or spoken words
brief loss of ocnsciousness caused by the decreased blood flow to the brain
abnormally increased amount of cerebrospinal fluid in the ventricles of the brain
collection of blood trapped in the tissues of her brain caused by a head injury
severe burning pain that usually follows an injury to a sensory nerve
drug that depresses the CNS and usally produces sleep
serious temporary or ongoing changes in function such as paralysis or blindness
anesthesia is administered to numb the nerves form the uterus and birth passages without stopping labor
amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
rapidly progressive neurological disease that attacks the nerve cells responsible for controlling the voluntary muscles
inflammation of the nerves and spinal cord
softening of the meninges
benign neoplasm made up of nerve tisse
degenerative disease of the brain
pain affecting many nerves
softening of nerve tissue
inflammation of the meninges and the brain
pathological condition of the spinal cord
softening of the brain
inflammation of the meninges, brain, and spinal cord

A therapist who uses a variety of psychological theories and therapeutic methods is said to be
While focusing on several intrusive thoughts that had been bothering her recently, Jenny was instructed by her therapist to report any ideas or memories stimulated by these thoughts. Jenny’s therapist was making use of a technique known as
free association
Classical psychoanalysts were especially interested in
interpreting the meaning of clients’ resistance to therapeutic procedures
Which of the following is derived from the psychoanalytic tradition and seeks to help patients gain insight into their relationships, including childhood experiences?
psychodynamic therapy
Who emphasized the importance of active listening in the process of psychotherapy?
Carl Rogers
A therapist helps Rebecca overcome her fear of water by getting her to swim in the family’s backyard pool three times a day for two consecutive weeks. The therapist’s approach to helping Rebecca best illustrates
exposure therapy
Systematic desensitization is a form of
exposure therapy
In a home for troubled youth, adolescents receive large colored buttons when they hang up their clothes, make their beds, and come to meals on time. The adolescents return the buttons to staff members to receive bedtime snacks or watch TV. This best illustrates an application of
operant conditioning
Cognitive therapists are most likely to
emphasize the importance of clients’ personal interpretations of life events
Nancy’s therapist encourages her to think about her strengths rather than her weaknesses and to develop a habit of thanking others when they compliment her or provide emotional support. The therapist’s approach best illustrates
cognitive-behavioral therapy
Psychotherapy is likely to be most effective when a client’s problem is
Which of the following is LEAST likely to be used for the treatment of depression?
The double-blind technique is most likely to be used in evaluating the effectiveness of
drug therapies
Tardive dyskinesia is associated with the long-term use of certain ________ drugs
Which of the following individuals is most likely to benefit from lithium?
Miranda, who experiences periods of extreme sadness followed by episodes of optimistic overexcitement anxiety

american psychological association (APA)
one of two commonly used style guides for formatting research papers.
a list of cited works in a report or research paper, also referred to as a works cited, sources, or references, depending upon the report style.
a note, inserted into the text of a research paper that refers to the reader to a source in the bibliogaphy.
in a research paper, a note placed at the end of a document or chapter.
in a research paper, a note placed at the bottom of the page.
hanging indent
an indent style in which the first line of a paragraph extends to the left of the remaining lines, and that is commonly used for bibliographic entries.
manual column break
an artificial end to a column to balance colomns or to provide space for the insertion of other objects.
manual page break
the action of forcing a page to end and placing subsequent text at the top of the next page.
in a research paper, information that expands on the topic, but that does not fit well in the document text.
page break indicator
a dotted line with the text page break that indicates where a manual page break was inserted.
parenthetical reference
MLA style, a citation that refers to items on the works cited page, and is placed in parenthesis; includes last name of author and page number.
an image of an active window on your computer that you can paste into a document.
a group of formatting commands: font, font size, font color, paragraph alignment, and line spacing; can be applied to a paragraph with one command.
style guide
a manual that contains standards for the design and writing of documents
works cited
MLA a list of cited works placed at the end of a research paper or report.
column text that is aligned to both the left and right margins
the banner on the front of the page of a newsletter that identifies the publication
a portion of a document that can be formatted differently from the rest of the document
small caps
a font effect, commonly used in titles, that changes lowercase text into uppercase letters using a reduced font size
enter key
to end a line before the normal end of the line, without creating a new paragraph, hold down the shift key while pressing the this key
bent arrow
the nonprinting symbol that displays where a manual line break is inserted
main document
in mail merge, the document that contains the text or formatting that remains constant
data source
in mail merge, the list of variable information, such as names and addresses, that is merged with a main document to create customized form letters or labels
in mail merge, a row of information that contains data for one person
mail merge wizard
to perform a mail merge using word’s step by step guided process

Our physical education instructor _____________ the virtues of regular exercise.
For centuries, Switzerland has avoided becoming a(n) __________________ in the conflicts that have scarred the rest of Europe.
When I realized how bad the brakes of the old car were, I feared that our lives were in _______________.
What good is a plastic raincoat that is ________________ to water if it also prevents any body heat from escaping?
As the old soldier watched the parade, he was suddenly overcome with _______________ for the youthful years he spent in the army.
King Arthur’s Knights of the Round Table were the ___________________ of chivalry.
A triple reverse looks mighty impressive on the chalkboard, but I doubt that the play will prove ________________ on the football field.
A(n) _______________ examination of my luggage was enough to show me that someone had been tampering with it.
An expert from the museum _________________ the painting, looking for telltale signs that would prove it to be genuine or expose it as a forgery.
If you are ________________ to hard study and intensive reading, how do you expect to get through law school?
If, as you claim, you really like raw oysters, why do you make such an eloquent ________________ every time you swallow one?
My teacher counseled me to keep up my studies, or my performance in class might once again ________________ into mediocrity.
When I heard you speaking French so fluently, my determination to master that language received a fresh _____________.
Because I was looking forward to a hot bath, I was disappointed at the feeble stream of _____________ water that flowed into the tub.
The accountant’s records – neat, accurate, and complete in every respect – show that she is a most __________________ worker.
Although he shows no particular talent as a worker, he is exceptionally _____________ at finding excuses for not doing his job.
Regarding Native Americans as “bloodthirsty savages,” Europeans were rarely able to maintain _______________ relations with them.
No one doubted the _______________ intentions of the program for community improvement, but it was ruined by mismanagement.
We must not forget the millions of people who were ruthlessly slaughtered by the Nazis in the ________________ of World War II.
Only when we learned that the embezzler had tried to cast suspicion on his innocent partner did we realize the extent of his _______________.

d. flat affect
Neuroleptic medications are less effective against negative symptoms of schizo. Which of the following is a negative symptom

a. delusions
b. hallucinations
c. loose associations
d. flat affect
e. all of these are positive symptoms

c. tangentiality
Which of the following is NOT a negative symptom of schizophrenia?

a. flat affect
b. alogia
c. tangentiality
d. anhedonia
e. all of the above are negative symptoms

c. paranoid type.
The subtype of schizophrenia in which delusions and hallucinations have themes is

a. catatonic type.
b. disorganized type.
c. paranoid type.
d. undifferentiated type.

a. catatonic
The behaviors displayed in _____ of schizophrenia primarily involve motor behavior disruptions

a. catatonic
b. disorganized
c. paranoid type
d. undifferentiated type

d. delusional disorder
Individuals with _____ tend not to have flat affect or anhedonia, but may become socially isolated because of their suspicions of others

a. brief psychotic disorder
b. schizophreniform disorder
c. schizophrenia, disorganized type
d. delusional disorder

b. at least possible; impossible
Delusions experienced by those with delusional disorder tend to be _____; delusions experienced by those with schizophrenia tend to be _____.

a. impossible; at least possible
b. at least possible; impossible
c. vivid; vague
d. vague; vivid

a. delusional disorder
Grandpa has us all worried and, frankly, scared. He has suddenly become suspicious of everyone and has some wild ideas about needing to protect himself from his loving family. His doctor has ruled out drugs and brain disease and suggests a psychological diagnosis:

a. delusional disorder
b. schizophrenia
c. schizophrenia disorder
d. brief psychotic disorder
e. none of these

d. 22%
According to one study on the relapse rates of schizophrenia, approx. ____ of people who have one episode of schizophrenia will have no lasting impairments or further episodes.

a. 92%
b. 72%
c. 52%
d. 22%

e. all of these
The 48% concordance rate of schizophrenia in identical (monozygotic) twins, who share 100% of their genetic information, tell us that

a. schizophrenia is not a purely genetic disorder
b. schizophrenia is not a purely environmentally-controlled disorder
c. environmental influences play some role in schizophrenia
d. genetic influences play some role in schizophrenia
e. all of these

c. when people share environments as well as genes, it is difficult to separate the influences of each
We need to use caution when drawing conclusions from family and twin studies of schizophrenia, because

a. researchers study only their own families
b. individuals with schizophrenia are often taken away from their families
c. when people share environments as well as genes, it is difficult to separate the influences of each
d. none of these

b. auditory
The most common type of hallucination that individuals with schizophrenia experience is

a. visual
b. auditory
c. olfactory
d. somatic
e. none of these

a. the child with of two parents with schizophrenia
Which of the following has the highest chance of developing schizophrenia?

a. the child with of two parents with schizophrenia
b. someone in the general population
c. the nephew of someone with schizophrenia
d. the sister of a male with schizophrenia
e. all of the above have an equal chance of developing the disorder

a. why researchers cannot seem to find one site for a schizophrenic gene
The likelihood that schizophrenia is a polygenic abnormality explains

a. why researchers cannot seem to find one site for a schizophrenic gene
b. why there are differences in severity among those with the disorder
c. why risk having the disorder increases with the number of affected relatives in the family
d. all of these

d. both a and c
The effectiveness of antipsychotic medications in those with schizophrenia

a. suggests an overactive dopamine system in persons with schizophrenia
b. suggests an underactive dopamine system in persons with schizophrenia
c. does not completely explain the role of dopamine in schizophrenia
d. both a and c

a. is made up of a number of behaviors or symptoms that aren’t necessarily shared by all the people with the disorder
One characteristic of schizophrenia that differentiates it from other disorders described in DSM-IV is that the concept of schizophrenia

a. is made up of a number of behaviors or symptoms that aren’t necessarily shared by all the people with the disorder
b. has been recognized as a serious problem since the early 1800s
c. was first identified in the US
d. has a single biological cause that has been identified through the use of PET scan technology.

c. a delusion
Guido believes that his computer comes to life at night and transmits messages about humans to Pluto. Assuming that is not true, it is an example of

a. affective flattening
b. frequent derailment
c. a delusion
d. alogia
e. tangentiality

a. loose associations
After Steve was asked how his summer break was, he offers the following reply ” my summer was great. Yes, great as the Great Wall of China. China is one place I have never been. I sure do like to travel. My brother ised to work for a travel agent a long time ago. It sure has been a long time since I’ve seen my sister.” His reply is an example of

a. loose associations
b. silly affect
c. catatonia
d. a negative symptom
e. wary flexibility

b. disorganized
Almost every day you see a middle-aged man walking the streets with two large garbage bags slung over his shoulder. He seems to be homeless, and he spends a great deal of time apparently talking to and answering people you can’t see. His muttering seems incoherent and he will often suddenly laugh or giggle for no obvious reason. IF he is displaying schizophrenia (and he may not be) what type is it?

a. paranoid
b. disorganized
c. Type II
d. catatonic
e. residual

b. catatonic
Elaine grimaces throughout the day and often imitates the words and movements of others. She is most likely displaying the _____ type of schizophrenia.

a. hebephrenic
b. catatonic
c. affective
d. paranoid
e. disorganized

b. a diagnosis of schizoaffective disorder
Roberto has experienced disorganized speech and hallucinations for the past six years. He has also experienced several major depressive episodes during this time period. Roberto would most likely receive

a. a diagnosis of comorbid schizophrenia and bipolar disorder
b. a diagnosis of schizoaffective disorder
c. a diagnosis of schizophreniform disorder
d. a diagnosis of delusional disorder
e. a diagnosis of major depression

c. a brief psychotic disorder
After Olga’s last final examination, she began experiencing auditory hallucinations and told her friends about her plans to reunite all missing children from around the world with their parents. Olga’s friends were relieved two weeks later when Olga reported that she was not hearing any voices an did not have any plans for reuniting missing children. Olga most likely experienced.

a. an undiagnosable event
b. a schizophreniform disorder
c. a brief psychotic disorder
d. a shared psychotic disorder

a. stressful life events
Researchers have found that ___ may be related to both the onset of schizophrenia, and to relapse

a. stressful life events
b. alcohol intoxication
c. excessive studying for psych exams
d. poor sleeping habits
e. none of these

c. delusions; flat affect
You are very hopeful when your sister with schizophrenia is prescribed a powerful neuroleptic drug. At the same time, you know it is likely to affect her ____ more than her _____.

a. anhedonia; delusions
b. alogia; hallucinations
c. delusions; flat affect
d. hallucinations; delusions
e. alogia; flat affect

a. a side effect of some anti-psychotic drugs
Tardive dyskinesia is

a. a side effect of some anti-psychotic drugs
b. a neuroleptic drug
c. a brain site affected by schizophrenia
d. a reference to enlarge cerebral ventricles
e. a side effect of schizophrenia

e. all of these
Which of the following statements is/are true

a. the lifetime prevalence rate of schizophrenia is nearly equal for men and women
b. schizophrenia affects about 1% of the population
c. people with schizophrenia have a higher rate of suicide and accidents
d. a and c
e. all of these

e. none of these
Alexander told his dormitory counselor that the entire freshman class was trying to get him to leave school, and explained to her how other students were breaking into his professors’ offices and changing his answers on homework and exams. Alexander is experiencing

a. hallucinations
b. tangentiality
c. delusions of grandeur
d. delusions of persecution
e. none of these

c. sitting in an empty waiting room
In which of the following situations would an individual with schizophrenia be most likely to experience hallucinations?

a. sitting on a busy subway train
b. sitting in a classroom full of students when the professor is eliciting class participation
c. sitting in an empty waiting room
d. sitting on a swing in the middle of a crowded playground

d. all of these
Research on methods to prevent schizophrenia involve

a. identification of high-risk children
b. prospective studies
c. longitudinal studies
d. all of these

d. residual
During your volunteer work at a group home for people with schizophrenia, you have a series of conversations with one young man. He seems lucid, coherent, and reasonable on every occasion. You begin to think he has been misdiagnosed and wonder why he is there. Suddenly, he tells you he is the Queen of England, working closely with God to rid the world of evil spirits. You realize his schizophrenia subtype is

a. catatonic
b. disorganized
c. paranoid
d. residual
e. undifferentiated

d. misdiagnosis of schizophrenia
The higher rates of schizophrenia among African-Americans as compared to whites in the US appears to be due to

a. specific biological influences that are most prevalent among African-Americans than whites
b. improved immunizations for white children
c. cultural conceptualizations of bizarre behavior
d. misdiagnosis of schizophrenia

a. a virus
When pregnant mothers suffer diseases or are exposed to harmful toxins, their children sometimes develop problems later in life. One of these risks, whose reduction may help prevent schizophrenia, is

a. a virus
b. cigarette smoke
c. automobile exhaust
d. alcohol
e. measles

c. left globus pallidus
According to the CD-ROM “DEFICITS OF MIND AND BRAIN,” recent research using PET scans on schizophrenic patients who had never been administered neuroleptic medications indicated unusual activity in the

a. basal ganglia
b. reticular activating system
c. left globus pallidus
d. right septum

d. anxiety attacks
According to the CD-ROM “DEFICITS OF MIND AND BRAIN,” one of the patients described as exhibiting symptoms of schizophrenia was “Marsha.” According to Dr. Early, Marsha displayed all of the following symptoms EXCEPT

a. paranoia
b. auditory hallucinations
c. persecutory delusions
d. anxiety attacks

a. her extremely disorganized thought process
In the CD-ROM “ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY: INSIDE-OUT,” “Etta” has experienced long periods of psychosis. During the video, which of the following made it most difficult for the clinician to conduct his interview

a. her extremely disorganized thought process
b. her active delusions
c. her engagement in hallucinatory experiences
d. her catatonic state

b. her long history of taking antipsychotic medications
In the CD-ROM “ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY: INSIDE-OUT,” “Etta’ displayed involuntary , “tic-like” hand movements that were described as being related to a condition known as Tardive Dyskinesia. These movements are most likely cause by

a. her schizophrenia
b. her long history of taking antipsychotic medications
c. the degradation of her Peripheral Nervous System
d. her being nervous in front of the camera

T or F The term schizophrenia was first introduced by Emil Kraepelin
T or F Schizophrenia can disrupt a person’s emotional functioning
T or F According to researchers, the most active area of the brain during auditory hallucinations is normally involved with language comprehension.
T or F A positive symptom of schizophrenia is flat affect, but alogia is a negative symptom.
T or F The rarest type of schizophrenia is the paranoid type
T or F Paranoid is a subtype of delusional disorder in the DSM-IV
T or F As adults with schizophrenia enter later adulthood, they tend to display more negative symptoms
T or F Studies have found abnormally small lateral ventricles in the brains of schizophrenic people.
T or F Thorazine is a type of neuroleptic drug
T or F Symptoms of schizophrenia are classified as positive, negative and neutral
b. multiple personality.
Eugen Bleuler’s concept of schizophrenia as an “associative splitting” of the basic functions of personality led to the incorrect use of the term to mean

a. a fugue state.
b. multiple personality.
c. cognitive slippage.
d. folie à deux.

c. a person who is hallucinating is actually listening to his/her own thoughts.
Results of research showing that auditory hallucinations are localized in the expressive speech area of the brain suggest that

a. these hallucinations are produced by the auditory nerve in the ear as well as the speech area of the brain.
b. people who are hallucinating think the voices of other people are actually their own.
c. a person who is hallucinating is actually listening to his/her own thoughts.
d. these hallucinations are related to the disorganized speech that occurs in schizophrenia.

b. affective flattening.
A research study involving schizophrenic adults looked at their facial expressions in home movies taken when they were children. The researchers were trying to determine if the development of schizophrenia could be predicted by facial expressions showing limited emotional reactions. This research study focused on the negative symptom called

a. alogia.
b. affective flattening.
c. associative splitting.
d. emotional effect syndrome.

d. flat affect.
Schizophrenia is associated with “positive symptoms” that include all of the following EXCEPT

a. hallucinations and delusions.
b. good response to medication.
c. optimistic prognosis.
d. flat affect.

a. an individual with a schizophrenic identical twin has the highest risk factor (almost 50%) of developing schizophrenia.
Research studies focusing on genetic factors in schizophrenia have found that

a. an individual with a schizophrenic identical twin has the highest risk factor (almost 50%) of developing schizophrenia.
b. in family studies of schizophrenia, the genetic influence can be separated from the environmental impact.
c. if one person in a family has a particular subtype of schizophrenia, e.g., paranoid, the other family members inherit a predisposition for that subtype only.
d. the more severe a parent’s schizophrenic disorder, the less likely the children are to develop it.

a. electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)
A treatment used in the 1930s for schizophrenia but now used primarily to treat severe depression is

a. electroconvulsive therapy (ECT).
b. prefrontal lobotomy.
c. insulin coma therapy.
d. psychosurgery.

c. somewhat successful while the program is in effect.
Social skills training programs for schizophrenic patients have been

a. very successful.
b. not at all successful.
c. somewhat successful while the program is in effect.
d. only successful when the patient is on medication.

why does Giles and Francis want to talk to Danforth
because they want to save their wives (Martha and Rebecca)
what is Parris argument against Proctor
it mischief; also Parris says he is trying to overrule the court
what does Mary tell Danforth
that they are never saw any spirits; this was not true (a lie)
when Danforth hears that Elizabeth is pregnant, what does he allow
he lets Proctor to keep her home for another year until she has the baby
what paper did ninety-one people sign
this says that their wives are not witches or into witchcraft
what three women was the petition signed about
Rebecca, Martha, and Elizabeth
“a person is either with this court or he must be counted against it, there be no road between.” Explain the importance of Danforth’s statement
was that you were with God or the Devil. The court is perfect and right and the people can’t oppose it
what quote did Proctor use to help Mary remain brave
“Do that which is good, and no harm will come to thee.”
this quote- “Do that which is good, and no harm will come to thee.” what is the irony is this quote
she tried to do good but the girls turned on Mary
what does Giles accuse Putnam of
trying to get his neighbors in jail for witchcraft, so when they are in jail he can purchase their land
who quits the court
what is Hale’s problem as Proctor and his friends present evidence to Danforth
Hale is starting to question and wonder everything
Hathorne thinks of a test for Mary. what is it
she has to faint
can Mary do what she is asked
why can’t Mary faint
because the other girls aren’t there and she is nervous
who calls Abigail a whore
does Proctor commit to lechery
Danforth tests Proctor’s statement by calling for Elizabeth and asking her why Abigail was dismissed. what does Elizabeth say. why.
she dismissed Abigail because she Elizabeth thought John was into Abby. she said John didn’t cheat on her; he did
why does Elizabeth lie to the court about the affair between Abby and John
to make John look ascent
what do the girls do to Mary
the girls pretend Mary is putting the bad spirit on them
what is Mary’s response to the girls pretending
she joins the girls in pretending
what happens to Proctor
he gets arrested because he says God is dead
act three opens with the interrogation of ________. she is ___________ with the nonsensical logic that the judges are using in her case
Martha, frustrated
Giles Corey and ____________ interrupt the proceedings to expose the girls as _______. The judges do not appreciate the _____________
…, frauds, disruption
judge Danforth tells John Proctor that Elizabeth is ____________ and will not be harmed for a year
In spite of this new information, John Procotr doesn’t back down because he has a sense of duty to his ____________
Giles Corey refuses to reviel the ________ of the __ people
names, 91
Elizabeth doesn’t know that John __________ to lechery and, therefore, she _______ in order to protect him
confessed, lies
At Proctor’s intense urging, _____ tries to do the right thing but is _______ by Abigail and the other girls
Mary, swayed
Reverend Hale is ________ by the turn of events and _________ the court
apauled, quits
Francis Nurse is upset because he feels he brought _______ to the people named on the list
judge Danforth seems more concerned with _______ in this act than with uncovering the ________
order, truth

how are water soluble vitamins absorbed
directly into the blood
what is the function of vitamin A in the diet
eyesight/cornea improvement, gene regeneration, growth/strength in bones and teeth
what does vitamin D deficiency cause
bone pain, muscle weakness, increase blood pressure, depression
are infants born with adequate vitamin K
no, new borns are deficient
B vitamins work together as what
what are the fat soluble vitamins
A, D, E, K
fat malabsorption diseases can bring about deficiencies of what
deficiencies of vitamins A, D, E, K
are water soluble vitamins stored
no, they are used and excreted
are water soluble vitamins leached out of foods
yes, when cooked
what are symptoms of vitamin A deficiency
decreased cell division, impaired immunity, exhaustion, night blindness
what food may cause vitamin A toxicity
a lack of beta carotene may cause
impaired immunity, exhaustion
what are the roles of vitamin D
calcium regulation, increased digestive absorption
vitamin D deficiency diseases include
rickets (kids), osteomalacia, osteoporosis
what are significant food sources of vitamin D
sardines, cereal (enriched) salmon
vitamin E serves as a what
where does much of our vitamin E consumption come from
veggie oils & products made from them
what is the main function of vitamin K
synthesis of blood
what are characteristics of water soluble vitamins
easily dissolvable, can be excreted by urine
what are the functions of vitamin C
collagen synthesis, increased immune system, increased iron absorption
what are good sources of vitamin C
orange juice, red and green peppers, brussel sprouts, broccoli
what is the thiamin deficiency called
which B vitamin is especially important for women of childbearing
water makes up what percentage of the body
what is water necessary for
body processes- digestion, cleansing, coolant
what is the first sign of dehydration
low energy, thirst, sudden weight loss, dry skin, dry mouth
what are the major roles of calcium
bone and teeth formation
a person’s absorption of calcium varies based on ____ and ____
age, vitamin D status
what is the best source of phosphorus
animal meats
how much sodium do adults assume daily
3400 grams
what is the sodium vs potassium intake on processed food
higher sodium, lower potassium
what is the principle food source for chloride
what impairs iron absorption
tea, phytates
how much water should a person consume in one day
male- 13 cups, female- 9 cups
why is water chlorination important
to kill disease-causing pathogens
what do calcium deficiencies result in
stops bone growth in kids, osteoporosis- adults
calcium absorption declines in the elderly because
reduced absorption, inadequate intake
what is osteoporosis often associated with
calcium deficiencies
how do you build maximum bone density
excess body fat is associated with an increased risk of what
type 2 diabetes, increased blood pressure, stroke, heart disease, cancers
excess fat of the _____ represents a greater risk to health than excess fat elsewhere in the body
BMI of 25-30
factors which cause a higher BMR include
fat-free mass, fat mass, age, sex, hormones
the psychological desire to eat is referred to as
which foods sustain longer than other foods
high in fiber and protein
a very low carbohydrate diet may be accompanied by what
high protein, low carbohydrate diets raise risk of
ketosis, kidney problems, high cholesterol, osteoporosis

In the Hersey-Chase experiments, how did the
scientists show that the genetic material was DNA?

The P32-labeled viral DNA was in the cell pellet when they centrifuged down the cells.
Why can DNA strands only be synthesized in one direction?
The polymerization reaction involves an attack of the 3’OH on an incoming nucleotide
What did early researchers know about chromosomes?
That they consisted of DNA and protein
Why was the old general consensus that genes were made of proteins?
-The relative complexity and variability of proteins
– Comparison to DNA, which is comprised of only
four different nucleotides
Who conducted the first experiments to see if genes were DNA or protein?
Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase
What virus was studied by Hershey and Chase?
T2 (bacteriophage to E. coli)
What is the first step of T2 infecting E. coli?
Attaches to the cell and injects its genes into the cell
What is the T2 injected material considered and why?
It is considered genetic material because it directs the production of new virus particles
What is left behind during the T2 infection?
the protein coat, or capsid, of the
original parent virus is left behind as a ghost attached
to the exterior of the cell
What were the two radioactive isotopes in the Hershey/Chase experiment?
32P to label DNA or 35S to label proteins
What would happen in the H/C experiment if the genes consisted of DNA?
-Then 32P-labeled DNA would be found inside the
– While 35S-labeled proteins would be found only
in the ghosts outside the cells
Which radioactive isotope was found in cell pellets? (H/C)
32P-labeled DNA
Which radioactive isotope was found in viral capsids (solution) (H/C)?
35S-labeled protein
What was the result of the Hershey/Chase experiment?
This result supports the proposal that genes are made of DNA, not protein.
What makes up the primary structure of a single strand of DNA?
1. A backbone of sugar (deoxyribose) and phosphate groups
2. Nitrogen-containing bases (A, C, G, T) that project from the backbone
3. The individual repeating units are called deoxyribonucleotides
Describe the directionality of DNA strands:
-One end has an exposed hydroxyl group on the 3′ carbon of deoxyribose
-The other end has an exposed phosphate group on a 5′ carbon
-The molecule thus has a 3′ end and a 5′ end
Who solved the secondary structure of DNA?
Watson and Crick (1953)
Watson and Crick proposal:
DNA is double stranded
-two DNA strands line up in the opposite direction to each other in antiparallel fashion
What does Adenine bind with?
What does Guanine bind with?
What is the secondary structure of DNA stabilized by?
by base pairing involving hydrogen bonds
Watson and Crick proposal II:
-The existing strands of DNA served as a template (pattern) for the production of new strands
-Bases were added to the new strands according to complementary base pairing
Conservative replication:
The parental molecule serves as a template for the synthesis of an entirely new double stranded molecule
Semiconservative replication:
-The parental DNA strands separate
-Each is used as a template for the synthesis of a new daughter strand
-DNA molecules each consist of one old parental and one new daughter strand
Dispersive replication:
-The parent molecule is replicated in sections
-The replicated molecules contain old DNA interspersed with newly synthesized DNA
What does the polymerization reaction lead to?
the formation of a phosphodiester bond between polymerized nucleotides
Phosphodiester bond:
a chemical bond of the kind joining successive sugar molecules in a polynucleotide. (a phosphorus atom involved in two ester bonds.)
a linear polymer whose molecule is composed of many nucleotide units, constituting a section of a nucleic acid molecule.
Where can DNA polymerases add dNTP’s?
On the 3′ end of a growing DNA chain
What is the only reaction catalyzed by DNA polymerase?
Nucleophilic attack of the 3’OH on the α-phosphate
of the incoming dNTP
What is DNA synthesized by?
DNA polymerase
What is incorporated into DNA during DNA synthesis?
deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates (dNTPs)
Is DNA synthesis endergonic or exergonic/ and why?
exergonic, because the high energy phosphate bonds are hydrolyzed in the reaction
What was Matthew Meselson and Frank Stahl’s experiment designed to determine?
The mode of DNA synthesis
What was the protocol for Meselson/Stahl’s experiment?
The grew E. coli in the presence of “heavy” nitrogen (15N) to label the bacteria’s DNA.
-then moved the bacteria to a normal 14N-containing medium
-Analyzed DNA by density at different times after shift
to 14N
What were the results of the Meselson/Stahl experiment?
Consistent with the hypothesis for semiconservative DNA synthesis
How is the incoming nucleotide incorporated?
According to base pairing rules
The Hershey-Chase experiment answered the question of whether protein or DNA was the genetic material by learning whether ______.
DNA or protein from a virus entered bacterial cells during infection
Okazaki fragments are found ______.
only on the lagging strand
Telomerase is needed to ______.
prevent the loss of DNA bases at the ends of linear chromosomes
What would happen if there wasn’t any telomerase?
linear chromosomes would shorten after each replication and eventually disappear
What aspect of DNA structure makes it possible for the enzymes of nucleotide excision repair to recognize many different types of DNA damage?
the regularity of DNA’s overall structure
Assuming that each replication fork moves at a rate of 500 base pairs per second, how long would it take to replicate the E. coli chromosome (with 4.6 million base pairs) from a single origin of replication?
4600 seconds

Each cycle does half, so divide by 2= 4600 seconds

What is the difference between DNA polymerase proofreading and excision repair?
Proof reading happens during DNA synthesis
Proof reading generally replaces a single mismatched base
Excision repair may excise a segment of damaged DNa
What does the nucleotide excision
repair system do?

recognizes DNA damage such as thymine dimers
What removes single-stranded DNA in a damaged section?
What are two things that can alter or damage DNA?
Chemicals or radiation
What does UV light do?
It causes thymine dimers to form, and the dimers then produce a kink in the DNA strand
When does the replication bubble form?
At the origin of replication
Which direction does the replication bubble grow in?
Both directions
How does DNA have to unwind?
locally during DNA replication to separate DNA strands
What is bidirectional replication?
When DNA replication occurs in both directions
Where does the replication process start in bacterial chromosomes?
At a single origin
What do proteins do for DNA during replication?
They are responsible for opening and stabilizing the reactions
What does the enzyme helicase do?
catalyzes the breaking of hydrogen bonds to separate the two DNA strands
What keeps the strands separated?
Single-strand DNA-binding proteins (SSBPs)
What does unwinding the DNA helix create?
Tension further down the helix
What cuts and rejoins the DNA?
Where does topoisomerase work and why?
Further down on the replication fork, and it relieves tension in the helix
Where does DNA synthesis occur?
At replication forks
Replication forks:
A Y-shaped region where the DNA helix is separated into two strands on either side of the replication bubble
What is a problem with the replication fork?
One strand is synthesized in the direction of movement of the fork, while the other is not
Leading Strand:
Strands synthesized in the direction of the fork
Lagging Strand:
Strand synthesize in the opposite direction of the fork
In what manner is a leading strand synthesized?
A continuous manner
In what manner is the lagging strand synthesized?
A discontinuous manner
Okazaki fragments:
Short pieces of DNA that have to be initiated over and over again
What does DNA polymerase require to initiate DNA synthesis?
A primer
What is a primer?
a small oligonucleotide bonded to a template strand
a polynucleotide whose molecules contain a relatively small number of nucleotides.
What does a primer provide?
a free 3ʹ hydroxyl (OH) group that form a
phosphodiester bond with an incoming dNTP
What does primase do?
Synthesizes a short RNA segment that serves as a
What does DNA polymerase III add?
bases to the 3′ end of the primer
How does synthesizing of the lagging strand start?
– Primase synthesizes a short RNA, a primer
What is the second step in synthesizing the lagging strand?
– DNA polymerase III adds bases to the 3ʹ end of the
primer forming an Okazaki fragment
What does DNA polymerase I remove?
the RNA primer at the
beginning of each Okazaki fragment and fills the gap
What does DNA ligase join?
the Okazaki fragments to form a
continuous DNA strand
A large, multi-enzyme machine responsible for DNA
synthesis at the replication fork
Why is the lagging strand synthesized in Okazaki fragments?
Because DNA polymerase has to start over and over to keep up with the replication fork
the regions at the ends of linear
What do telomeres consist of?
short, repeating stretches of bases
Do telomeres contain genes?
What happens when the replication fork reaches the end of a linear chromosome?
Can’t prime on the end of the lagging DNA strand
What does telomerase add?
more repeating bases to the end of the lagging
What does telomerase catalyze?
the synthesis of DNA from an RNA template carried with it
What makes the RNA primer?
What enzyme checks for mismatches pairs in the DNA?
What happens in polymerase finds a mismatch?
It pauses and removes the mismatched base that
was just added
What is the average error rate of DNA replication?
less than one mistake per billion bases
What problem is encountered in replicating DNA at the ends of chromosomes (telomeres)?
Run out of template to prime DNA synthesis on the lagging strand

Goods in transit are included in a purchaser’s inventory when?
the purchaser is responsible for paying freight charges.
Internal Controls that should be applied when a business takes a physical count of inventory should include what four things?
1. Prenumbered inventory tickets.
2. inventory counters should not be responsible for the inventory.
3. counters must confirm the of inventory existence, amounts, and quality.
4. Second counts by a different counter.
The Consistency Concept says to consistently apply what?
the same method of inventory evaluation except when a change from one method to another will improve financial reporting.
During a period of steadily rising costs, the inventory valuation method that yields the lowest reported net income is:
LIFO method.
Inventory Costing methods:
1. Specific Identification
2. LIFO- Last in, First out
3. FIFO- First in, First out
4. Weighted Average

How long will Cole be in Southeast Alaska
one year
What kind of Native American is Garvey and Edwin
At the beginning what trouble did Cole do
breaking into a hardware store
beating up Peter
How old is Cole in the beginning
In the first two chapters, has Cole ‘s feelings changed from past till the end of chapter two
What is Cole’s plan to avoid jail
circle justice
What plant does Edwin say will cause infected hands
Devil’s Club
Why isn’t Cole’s shelter closer to the stream
other animal go to the stream
What does the Spirit Bear possess
pride, dignity, honor, and pure white
What is an at.oow
passing on a gift which can not be owned
How long is Cole held in detention
three mounths
Who trashes Cole’s room at the detention center and bloodies his knuckes
what BEST DESCRIBES what action Cole takes as soon as the skiff is out of sight; (the first time)
Burns the shelter and supplies
What does Garvey bring to Cole’s cell
a brown paper grocery bag
what does Cole do with the ingredients
eat them
throws around the room
how does Cole plan to escape from the island
swim island to island
wheat does Garvey call Cole instead to Champ, the name he usually calls him
where do Cole’s parents sits at the Circle Justice
by Cole
What is the mood of the story at Circle Justice
what two obligations must speakers fulfill at the Circle Justice
honesty and respect
Cole MOST LIKELY can’t swim away from the island because…
the tide is against him
what presence does Cole see
The Spirit Bear
What does Cole find near the ashes of the shelter
a charred knife blade
by the end of Ch. 5 has Cole forgave the Circle Justice
who does Cole argue with a the circle
taunted his dad
at the circle Garvey says Cole has will and courage, but what does he also have
ugly anger
what does Peter fee will make things better
someone smashes Cole’s head against a sidewalk
when will the tide come in
midday and midnight
who doe Cole blame for his banishment
at the end of one year’s banishment who will decide what happens to Cole
The Circle
what does Cole uses/make to fight the bear
a spear
what does Cole find to eat
half eaten fish
what does Cole kill while he’s lying hurt, barely breathing
When does Cole wish he was at the end of Ch. 8
what does Cole watch in the spruce tree
a small gray sparrow
what does Cole imagine is covering him
the at. `oow
after the storm passes, what reminds Cole of the circle Garvey spoke of
the full moon
what does Cole understand as the circle of life and death
live, die, and rot, then something else lives, dies, and rots
Cole’s idea of power
“the power to choose was real power, not the fake power of making people afraid of you”
What does Cole eat after the mauling 5
grass, warms, ants, beetles, spiders, fuzzy caterpillar, puke
Cole spits at the bear because…
he is still angry and wants to hurt those who have hurt him
what does Cole imagine he is in his dream?
How is he similar to his animal right now

baby bird
How does Cole see the world after the spirit bear disappears
who rescues cole from the island
Edwin and Garvey
what BEST SUPPORTS the idea that Cole doesn’t trust people, even those who are trying to help him
cole reminds Garvey of himself because Garvey also hurt someone when he was younger
What does cold do with the white hair he pulled from the bear
throws it in the water
why does Cole thing the bear attacked him
the bear was protecting himself
who was the surprise visitor at the circle
and what EVIDENCE did he present that Cole was telling the truth

slow persistent pressure and single, sudden traumatic experiences
who will finance Cole’s banishment the second time
how long does it take to get to Drake to the island on the skiff
1 hour








Numbered consecutively and lasts for two years
Period of time during which, each year, Congress assembles and conducts business
Suspends until the next session
End, discontinue
Special Session
A meeting to deal with some emergency situation
Off-year elections
Congressional elections that occur between presidential elections
Single-member district
When voters in each district elect one of the State’s representatives from among a field of candidates running for a seat in the House from that district
Elected from a state as a whole
Districts that have been drawn to the advantage of the political party that controls the State’s legislature
How long does a term of congress last?
Two years
Who has the power to prorogue a session of Congress?
Reapportionment Act o 1929
Law that sets up “automatic reapportionment”
What is the permanent size of the House?
When does Alaska hold their elections?
What case led the Supreme Court held that the Constitution demands that the States draw congressional districts of substantially equal population?
Wesberry v. Sanders
When will the next two off year elections occur?
How old does a member of the House have to be?
How long does a member of the house have to be a citizen?
Continuous body
All of the Senate’s seats are never up for election at the same time
The people and interests the senators represent
Believes that each question they face must be decided on its merits
Lawmakers who owe their first allegiance to their political party
Attempt to combine the basic elements of the trustee, delegate, and partisan roles
Oversight function
Process by which Congress, through its committees, checks to see that various agencies in the executive branch are working effectively and acting in line of the law
Franking privilege
A well-known benefit that allows them to mail letters and other materials postage-free by substituting their facsimile signature (frank) for the postage

Why was Robert Washington unable to escape from the other car like the other boys?
his legs were on the dashboard and the crash sent his feet through the windshield, the gas tank went off, he burned to death
What sports team did Rob captain of?
basketball team
What was the accident due to?
What is “cool bottles sunshine”?
What, according to Rob, is the reason why Andy only scored 6 points int he game?
he was looking at the girls in the stands
Why does Gerald refer to Andy and Rob as “two dudes named after a couple of dead presidents”?
Andy–Andrew Jackson
Rob–Robert Washington
Why does Gerald decide not to go out with Andy and Rob?
he did not want to get into trouble
What did Andy have to hide from Keisha?
he was drinking
Who or what is “Good Sam”
How do Rhonda and Keisha find out about he accident?
Rhonda’s mom told them
What was the boys’ first reaction when the car started weaving and people began honking at them?
thought it was funny
What, according to Gerald, is the first thing a girl always think when her boyfriend is late?
if in an accident(foreshadowing)
Whose help did Rob scream for when he realized he was trapped in a burning car?
What reason does BJ give the boys for why he doesn’t drink? What is the real reason?
told them it stunted his growth, but hates it “boiled sweat socks”
Why does BJ lies to his friends about his reason for not drinking?
does not wanted to get teased about his height
Why did BJ not insist upon driving Andy’s car?
he never asks questions and goes along with everything
Rhonda doesn’t cry about Rob’s death. Why?
she was mad at them for drinking
How has the basketball team decided to honor Rob’s memory?
dedicate the season to him and win the title
What is ironic about the fact that one of Coach Ripley’s star pupils died in a drunk driving accident?
he sponsors 2 groups that is against it
How are Andy’s parents reacting to the accident?
shocked and sad
How does the coach treat Andy after the accident?
In what two ways does Andy think he should have been a more severely punished for the accident?
should have been the one dead, or sent to jail
What is Andy charged with?
charged with DWI, license revoked until 21, 2 year suspended sentence
How does Rhonda feel about the grief counselors?
no help
According to Rhonda, what has helped her and fellow classmates to deal with the grief?
talking in small groups
How has Andy’s behavior changed since the accident?
cries and depressed, goes to a psychologist
What do we learn abut Andy’s parents?
never go to the games, they don’t fit in
What does Gerald think that 5 dollar bills are used to buy?
whiskey, pot, crack
Later, whose parents were surprisingly at the game?and not?
Andy’s parents–not there
Rob’s parents–were there
What surprises Andy about the psychologist?
he is black
How does Andy feel about seeing a psychologist?
thinks its unnecessary
What deal does the psychologist strike with Andy?
if andy convinces him he is fine, he won’t have to come back
Who does Andy blame for the accident?
What was the worst thing that happened to Andy when he returned to school?
he found a note that said “killer”
What worries Andy about Monty?
that he will have the same problems
Why does Andy get upset with Keisha?
she doesn’t want to hang out with him
What about Andy is starting to get on Keisha’s nerves?
he has temper tantrums
How is Andy doing in school like grades?
no good
Why do the kids at school hate Marcus?
he always get good grades
Which students always win the academic awards?
white kids
What assumption did Andy’s guidance counselor make about him?
he shouldn’t aim high
What depresses Andy as he walks through the mall?
saw a Santa Claus display and reminded him of Rob
Does Keisha seem to understand and sympathize with Andy’s depression?
How does shopkeepers treat black boys differ from the way they treat white boys?
black–they watch them carefully
white–they let them do whatever
How did Andy and Rob toy with the shopkeepers that make racist comments?
they would pretend to buy something
What did the shopkeepers assume when he and Rob left a store without incident?
he were gonna come back to rob them
How does Andy feel about his relationship with Keisha?
everything is good and no problems
What does Keisha feel that Andy does too frequently?
What circumstance does Keisha find comparable to being black among mostly whites?
blacks stand out when they want to fit in
The colors black and white are frequently associated with what?
Why could wearing red lead to arrest and possibly death in Puritan England?
red was associated with devil and evil
What makes Andy think of Rob all of the sudden?
the cold
Describe Keisha’s feelings with Andy?
annoyed with him
Why has Andy not spoken with Rob’s parents since Christmas?
he think they hate him for killing Rob
What kept Andy from jumping off the overpass?
What does the psychologist ask Andy to do if Andy ever feels like he can’t handle his grief?
to call the psychologist
What homework does Andy’s psychologist give him?
to write a letter to Rob’s parents
What is sometimes part of the grieving process?
considering suicide
What does Andy imagine his future to be like?
In his dream, what does Rob want him to do?
to be dead
Who does Rob blame for his death?
What does put in the letter to Rob’s parents?
the good things about Rob
What does Andy hope his letter will accomplish?
give Rob’s parents comfort and forgive him
What does Andy reveal about his own family in the letter?
he wishes he was a part of Rob’s family than his own
Why does BJ nix the idea of him and Tyrone talking to Andy’s parents about their concern for him?
they would not listen to them
How does Mrs.Thorne respond to BJ and Tyrone’s concerns?
doesn’t take them seriously
According to Keisha, what motivates students to come to school?
seeing friends
Does Keisha seem to believe that Andy will recover? Why?
yes-he has good friends that care
What is troubling Ms.Blackwell about Andy?
his behavior and mood
What does Monty know about Andy’s accident?
he is sad and can’t drive
To whom does Monty compare his “very sad” tiger?
What does Keisha know about Andy that no one else does?
he’s still depressed and not better at all
What question has Andy asked Keisha that may lead to suspect that he is considering suicide?
If i die, will you miss me?
What scares Rhonda about “the real kind of love”?
she might get hurt
What does Andy do at the talent show that almost gets him in trouble with Mrs.Jawes?
he was taking off his clothes
What does Keisha notice about Andy as she watches him perform?
he was not smiling
What does Keisha do when Andy leaves the stage and comes over to her?
to compliment him
How does Andy’s mother refer to the car crash?
an unfortunate incident
What does Rhonda think that Andy needs?
For what purpose had Keisha been going to perform in the talent show?
to sing a song for Andy and surprise him
Who does Andy blame for his having missed the chance to talk to college scouts?
his dad
What does Andy feel that his low grades,absences,and police record will result in?
no college/scholarship
What do we find out about Andy’s college dreams?
he never wanted to go to college
What does Mr.Jackson think that Andy lacks?
the desire to excel
Why is the psychologist unable to calm Andy down?
he is out of town
What does the fact that Andy chooses to make these calls tell us about Andy?
he wants someone to listen to him
Nobody picks up Andy’s calls. What does he think about that?
nobody cares about him
What is Keisha looking forward to now that she and him are broken up?
relaxing and freedom
What does Keisha think might happen if she goes to Andy’s house?
she might cry and get back together with him
How did Andy feel during his childhood accident on the escalator?
like he wasn’t there at all
Does Andy want to die? Why does he kill himself?
no–too painful to live
Who first noticed a sign that Andy was dead?
Monty–saw blood through the ceiling
How has Andy’s suicide affected Tyrone’s and BJ’s relationship?
nothing is the same anymore–no fun
Why is Gerald so angry at Andy?
hates him for leaving and having no courage to live
What serious message about suicide does Rhonda’s letter convey?
suicide will hurt everyone
What has helped BJ to cope with the pain of Rob’s death?
praying to god
How has Andy’s suicide affected his family?
they moved, parents split up, parents more attention to Monty
What advice has Mr.Jackson given Monty even though the same advice did not help Andy after Rob’s death?
to have strength and to be brave
Who does Monty associate the tiger with now?

1. Managers at Arnold Palmer Hospital take quality so seriously that the hospital typically is a national leader in several quality areas—so that continuous improvement is no longer necessary.
2. An improvement in quality must necessarily increase costs.
3. For most, if not all organizations, quality is a tactical rather than a strategic issue.
4. The definition of quality adopted by The American Society for Quality is a customer-oriented definition.
5. Conforming to standards is the focus of the product-based definition of quality.
6. Internal failure costs are associated with scrap, rework, and downtime.
7. Philip Crosby is credited with both of these quality catch-phrases: “quality is free” and “zero defects.”
8. Deming’s writings on quality tend to focus on the customer and on fitness for use, unlike Juran’s work that is oriented toward meeting specifications.
9. Improved quality can increase profitability via flexible pricing.
10. ISO 9000 has evolved from a set of quality assurance standards toward a quality management system.
11. Quality is mostly the business of the quality control staff, not ordinary employees.
12. TQM is important because quality influences all of the ten decisions made by operations managers.
13. The phrase Six Sigma has two meanings. One is statistical, referring to an extremely high process capability; the other is a comprehensive system for achieving and sustaining business success
14. Continuous improvement is based on the philosophy that any aspect of an organization can be improved.
15. Kaizen is similar to TQM in that both are focused on continuous improvement.
16. The Japanese use the term “poka-yoke” to refer to continuous improvement.
17. Quality circles empower employees to improve productivity by finding solutions to work-related problems in their work area.
True (Total quality management, moderate) {AACSB: Communication}
18. Benchmarking requires the comparison of your firm to other organizations; it is not appropriate to benchmark by comparing one of your divisions to another of your divisions.
False (Total quality management, moderate)
19. Line employees need the knowledge of TQM tools.
True (Total quality management, easy)
20. One of the ways that Just-In-Time (or JIT) influences quality is that by reducing inventory, bad quality is exposed.
True (Total quality management, moderate)
21. The quality loss function indicates that costs related to poor quality are low as long as the product is within acceptable specification limits.
False (Total quality management, moderate)
22. Pareto charts are a graphical way of identifying the few critical items from the many less important ones.
True (Tools of TQM, moderate)
23. A cause-and-effect diagram helps identify the source of a problem.
True (Tools of TQM, moderate)
24. Source inspection is inferior to inspection before costly operations.
False (The role of inspection, moderate)
25. Of the several determinants of service quality, access is the one that relates to keeping customers informed in language they can understand.
False (TQM in services, moderate)
26. High-quality products and services are the most profitable.
True (Defining quality, easy)
27. Which of the following statements regarding Arnold Palmer Hospital is false?
a. The hospital uses a wide range of quality management techniques.
b. The culture of quality at the hospital includes employees at all levels.
c. The hospital scores very highly in national studies of patient satisfaction.
d. The hospital’s high quality is measured by low readmission rates, not patient satisfaction.
e. The design of patient rooms, even wall colors, reflects the hospital’s culture of quality.

d. The hospital’s high quality is measured by low readmission rates, not patient satisfaction.
28. Arnold Palmer Hospital uses which of the following quality management techniques?
a. Pareto charts
b. flow charts
c. benchmarking
d. Just-in-Time
e. The hospital uses all of the above techniques.

e. The hospital uses all of the above techniques.
29. Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between quality management and product strategy?
a. Product strategy is set by top management; quality management is an independent activity.
b. Quality management is important to the low-cost product strategy, but not to the response or differentiation strategies.
c. High quality is important to all three strategies, but it is not a critical success factor.
d. Managing quality helps build successful product strategies.
e. Companies with the highest measures of quality were no more productive than other firms.

d. Managing quality helps build successful product strategies.
30. “Quality is defined by the customer” is
a. an unrealistic definition of quality
b. a user-based definition of quality
c. a manufacturing-based definition of quality
d. a product-based definition of quality
e. the definition proposed by the American Society for Quality

b. a user-based definition of quality
31. “Making it right the first time” is
a. an unrealistic definition of quality
b. a user-based definition of quality
c. a manufacturing-based definition of quality
d. a product-based definition of quality
e. the definition proposed by the American Society for Quality

c. a manufacturing-based definition of quality
32. Three broad categories of definitions of quality are
a. product quality, service quality, and organizational quality
b. user-based, manufacturing-based, and product-based
c. internal, external, and prevention
d. low-cost, response, and differentiation
e. Pareto, Shewhart, and Deming

b. user-based, manufacturing-based, and product-based
33. According to the manufacturing-based definition of quality,
a. quality is the degree of excellence at an acceptable price and the control of variability at an acceptable cost
b. quality depends on how well the product fits patterns of consumer preferences
c. even though quality cannot be defined, you know what it is
d. quality is the degree to which a specific product conforms to standards
e. quality lies in the eyes of the beholder

d. quality is the degree to which a specific product conforms to standards
34. The role of quality in limiting a firm’s product liability is illustrated by
a. ensuring that contaminated products such as impure foods do not reach customers
b. ensuring that products meet standards such as those of the Consumer Product Safety Act
c. designing safe products to limit possible harm to consumers
d. using processes that make products as safe or as durable as their design specifications call for
e. All of the above are valid.

e. All of the above are valid.
35. Which of the following is not one of the major categories of costs associated with quality?
a. prevention costs
b. appraisal costs
c. internal failures
d. external failures
e. none of the above; they are all major categories of costs associated with quality

e. none of the above; they are all major categories of costs associated with quality
36. All of the following costs are likely to decrease as a result of better quality except
a. customer dissatisfaction costs
b. inspection costs
c. scrap costs
d. warranty and service costs
e. maintenance costs

e. maintenance costs
37. Which of the following statements is not true?
a. Self-promotion is not a substitute for quality products.
b. Inferior products harm a firm’s profitability and a nation’s balance of payments.
c. Product liability transfers from the manufacturer to the retailer once the retailer accepts delivery of the product.
d. Quality—be it good or bad—will show up in perceptions about a firm’s new products, employment practices, and supplier relations.
e. Legislation such as the Consumer Product Safety Act sets and enforces product standards by banning products that do not reach those standards.

c. Product liability transfers from the manufacturer to the retailer once the retailer accepts delivery of the product.
38. “Employees cannot produce goods that on average exceed the quality of what the process is capable of producing” expresses a basic element in the writings of
a. Vilfredo Pareto
b. Armand Feigenbaum
c. Joseph M. Juran
d. W. Edwards Deming
e. Philip B. Crosby

d. W. Edwards Deming
39. “Quality Is Free,” meaning that the costs of poor quality have been understated, is the work of
a. W. Edwards Deming
b. Joseph M. Juran
c. Philip B. Crosby
d. Crosby, Stills, and Nash
e. Armand Feigenbaum

c. Philip B. Crosby
40. The philosophy of zero defects is
a. the result of Deming’s research
b. unrealistic
c. prohibitively costly
d. an ultimate goal; in practice, 1 to 2% defects is acceptable
e. consistent with the commitment to continuous improvement

e. consistent with the commitment to continuous improvement
41. Based on his 14 Points, Deming is a strong proponent of
a. inspection at the end of the production process
b. an increase in numerical quotas to boost productivity
c. looking for the cheapest supplier
d. training and knowledge
e. all of the above

d. training and knowledge
42. Stakeholders who are affected by the production and marketing of poor quality products include
a. stockholders, employees, and customers
b. suppliers and creditors, but not distributors
c. only stockholders, creditors, and owners
d. suppliers and distributors, but not customers
e. only stockholders and organizational executives and managers

a. stockholders, employees, and customers
43. Regarding the quality of design, production, and distribution of products, an ethical requirement for management is to
a. determine whether any of the organization’s stakeholders are violated by poor quality products
b. gain ISO 14000 certification for the organization
c. obtain a product safety certificate from the Consumer Product Safety Commission
d. have the organization’s legal staff write disclaimers in the product instruction booklets
e. compare the cost of product liability to the external failure cost

a. determine whether any of the organization’s stakeholders are violated by poor quality products
44. If 1 million passengers pass through the St. Louis Airport with checked baggage each month, a successful Six Sigma program for baggage handling would result in how many passengers with misplaced luggage?
a. 3.4
b. 6.0
c. 34
d. 2700
e. 6 times the monthly standard deviation of passengers

a. 3.4
45. Which of the following is true about ISO 14000 certification?
a. It is not a prerequisite for ISO 9000 certification.
b. It deals with environmental management.
c. It offers a good systematic approach to pollution prevention.
d. One of its core elements is life-cycle assessment.
e. All of the above are true.

e. All of the above are true.
46. Suppose that a firm has historically been achieving “three-sigma” quality. If the firm later changes its quality management practices such that begins to achieve “six-sigma” quality, which of the following phenomena will result?
a. The average number of defects will be cut in half.
b. The specification limits will be moved twice as far from the mean.
c. The average number of defects will be cut by 99.9997%.
d. The average number of defects will be cut by 99.87%.
e. The average number of defects will be cut by 99.73%.

d. The average number of defects will be cut by 99.87%.
47. To become ISO 9000 certified, organizations must
a. document quality procedures
b. have an onsite assessment
c. have an ongoing series of audits of their products or service
d. all of the above
e. none of the above

d. all of the above
48. Total quality management emphasizes
a. the responsibility of the quality control staff to identify and solve all quality-related problems
b. a commitment to quality that goes beyond internal company issues to suppliers and customers
c. a system where strong managers are the only decision makers
d. a process where mostly statisticians get involved
e. ISO 14000 certification

b. a commitment to quality that goes beyond internal company issues to suppliers and customers
49. A successful TQM program incorporates all of the following except
a. continuous improvement
b. employee involvement
c. benchmarking
d. centralized decision-making authority
e. none of the above; a successful TQM program incorporates all of the above

d. centralized decision-making authority
50. “Kaizen” is a Japanese term meaning
a. a foolproof mechanism
b. just-in-time (JIT)
c. a fishbone diagram
d. setting standards
e. continuous improvement

e. continuous improvement
51. Which of the following statements regarding “Six Sigma” is true?
a. The term has two distinct meanings—one is statistical; the other is a comprehensive quality system.
b. Six Sigma means that about 94 percent of a firm’s output is free of defects.
c. The Six Sigma program was developed by Toyota in the 1970’s.
d. The Six Sigma program is for manufacturing firms, and is not applicable to services.
e. Six Sigma certification is granted by the International Standards Organization (ISO).

a. The term has two distinct meanings—one is statistical; the other is a comprehensive quality system.
52. Quality circles members are
a. paid according to their contribution to quality
b. external consultants designed to provide training in the use of quality tools
c. always machine operators
d. all trained to be facilitators
e. none of the above; all of the statements are false

e. none of the above; all of the statements are false
53. Techniques for building employee empowerment include
a. building communication networks that include employees
b. developing open, supportive supervisors
c. moving responsibility from both managers and staff to production employees
d. building high-morale organizations
e. All of the above are techniques for employee empowerment.

e. All of the above are techniques for employee empowerment.
54. Building high-morale organizations and building communication networks that include employees
are both elements of
a. ISO 9000 certification
b. Six Sigma certification
c. employee empowerment
d. Taguchi methods
e. the tools of TQM

c. employee empowerment
55. The process of identifying other organizations that are best at some facet of your operations and
then modeling your organization after them is known as
a. continuous improvement
b. employee empowerment
c. benchmarking
d. copycatting
e. patent infringement

c. benchmarking
56. ISO 9000 seeks standardization in terms of
a. products
b. production procedures
c. suppliers’ specifications
d. procedures to manage quality
e. all of the above

d. procedures to manage quality
57. Costs of dissatisfaction, repair costs, and warranty costs are elements of cost in the
a. Taguchi Loss Function
b. Pareto chart
c. ISO 9000 Quality Cost Calculator
d. process chart
e. none of the above

a. Taguchi Loss Function
58. A quality loss function includes all of the following costs except
a. the cost of scrap and repair
b. the cost of customer dissatisfaction
c. inspection, warranty, and service costs
d. sales costs
e. costs to society

d. sales costs
59. Pareto charts are used to
a. identify inspection points in a process
b. outline production schedules
c. organize errors, problems, or defects
d. show material flow
e. all of the above

c. organize errors, problems, or defects
60. The “four Ms” of cause-and-effect diagrams are
a. material, machinery/equipment, manpower, and methods
b. material, methods, men, and mental attitude
c. named after four quality experts
d. material, management, manpower, and motivation
e. none of the above

a. material, machinery/equipment, manpower, and methods
61. Among the tools of TQM, the tool ordinarily used to aid in understanding the sequence of events
through which a product travels is a
a. Pareto chart
b. process chart
c. check sheet
d. Taguchi map
e. poka-yoke

b. process chart
62. The process improvement technique that sorts the “vital few” from the “trivial many” is
a. Taguchi analysis
b. Pareto analysis
c. benchmarking
d. Deming analysis
e. Yamaguchi analysis

b. Pareto analysis
63. A production manager at a pottery factory has noticed that about 70 percent of defects result from impurities in raw materials, 15 percent result from human error, 10 percent from machine malfunctions, and 5 percent from a variety of other causes. This manager is most likely using
a. a Pareto chart
b. a scatter diagram
c. a Taguchi loss function
d. a cause and effect diagram
e. a flow chart

a. a Pareto chart
64. A customer service manager at a retail clothing store has collected numerous customer complaints from the forms they fill out on merchandise returns. To analyze trends or patterns in these returns, she has organized these complaints into a small number of categories. This is most closely related to the ____________ tool of TQM.
a. Taguchi loss function
b. cause and effect diagram
c. scatter diagram
d. histogram
e. process control chart

b. cause and effect diagram
65. A manager tells her production employees, “It’s no longer good enough that your work fall anywhere within the specification limits. I need your work to be as close to the target value as possible.” Her thinking is reflective of
a. internal benchmarking
b. Six Sigma
c. ISO 9000
d. Taguchi concepts
e. process control charts

d. Taguchi concepts
66. A fishbone diagram is also known as a
a. cause-and-effect diagram
b. poka-yoke diagram
c. Kaizen diagram
d. Kanban diagram
e. Taguchi diagram

a. cause-and-effect diagram
67. If a sample of parts is measured and the mean of the measurements is outside the control limits, the process is
a. in control, but not capable of producing within the established control limits
b. out of control and the process should be investigated for assignable variation
c. within the established control limits with only natural causes of variation
d. monitored closely to see if the next sample mean will also fall outside the control limits
e. none of the above

b. out of control and the process should be investigated for assignable variation
68. A quality circle holds a brainstorming session and attempts to identify the factors responsible for flaws in a product. Which tool do you suggest they use to organize their findings?
a. Ishikawa diagram
b. Pareto chart
c. process chart
d. control charts
e. activity chart

a. Ishikawa diagram
69. When a sample measurement falls inside the control limits, it means that
a. each unit manufactured is good enough to sell
b. the process limits cannot be determined statistically
c. the process output exceeds the requirements
d. if there is no other pattern in the samples, the process is in control
e. the process output does not fulfill the requirements

d. if there is no other pattern in the samples, the process is in control
70. Which of the following is false regarding control charts?
a. Values above the upper control limits always imply that the product’s quality is exceeding expectations.
b. Control charts are built so that new data can be quickly compared to past performance data.
c. Control charts graphically present data.
d. Control charts plot data over time.
e. None of the above is false.

a. Values above the upper control limits always imply that the product’s quality is exceeding expectations.
71. The goal of inspection is to
a. detect a bad process immediately
b. add value to a product or service
c. correct deficiencies in products
d. correct system deficiencies
e. all of the above

a. detect a bad process immediately
72. Which of the following is not a typical inspection point?
a. upon receipt of goods from your supplier
b. during the production process
c. before the product is shipped to the customer
d. at the supplier’s plant while the supplier is producing
e. after a costly process

e. after a costly process
73. A good description of “source inspection” is inspecting
a. materials upon delivery by the supplier
b. the goods at the production facility before they reach the customer
c. the goods as soon as a problem occurs
d. goods at the supplier’s plant
e. one’s own work, as well as the work done at the previous work station

e. one’s own work, as well as the work done at the previous work station
74. “Poka-yoke” is the Japanese term for
a. card
b. foolproof
c. continuous improvement
d. fishbone diagram
e. just-in-time production

b. foolproof
75. What refers to training and empowering frontline workers to solve a problem immediately?
a. just-in-time
b. poka-yoke
c. benchmarking
d. kaizen
e. service recovery

e. service recovery
76. A recent consumer survey conducted for a car dealership indicates that, when buying a car, customers are primarily concerned with the salesperson’s ability to explain the car’s features, the salesperson’s friendliness, and the dealer’s honesty. The dealership should be especially concerned with which determinants of service quality?
a. communication, courtesy, and credibility
b. competence, courtesy, and security
c. competence, responsiveness, and reliability
d. communication, responsiveness, and reliability
e. understanding/knowing customer, responsiveness, and reliability

a. communication, courtesy, and credibility
77. Marketing issues such as advertising, image, and promotion are important to quality because
a. they define for consumers the tangible elements of a service
b. the intangible attributes of a product (including any accompanying service) may not be defined by the consumer
c. they educate consumers on how to use the product
d. they make the product seem more valuable than it really is
e. they raise expenses and therefore decrease profitability

b. the intangible attributes of a product (including any accompanying service) may not be defined by the consumer
78. Which of the determinants of service quality involves having the customer’s best interests at heart?
a. access
b. courtesy
c. credibility
d. responsiveness
e. tangibles

c. credibility
79. Which of the determinants of service quality involves performing the service right the first time?
a. access
b. courtesy
c. credibility
d. reliability
e. responsiveness

d. reliability

1) What is the source of the place-name, “Caribbean”?
Derived from the name of native peoples from the area known as Caribs?
2) What is the rimland of the Caribbean? – PG 142 – R
Includes Balize and Guianas, Carribean coast of Central and South America
3) Why hasn’t the Caribbean Sea supported large commercial fishing operations? – PG 142 – R
Quantities of any one species is not large enough
4) At what wind speed does a tropical disturbance become a hurricane? – PG 145 – L
74 MPH
6) In which Caribbean country did the 2005 Hurricane Dennis have the most devastating effect? – PG 145 – L
7) What practice was most responsible for the deforestation of the islands of the Caribbean? – PG 145 R and 146- L
Europeans mainly removed them for sugar cane fields
8) According to your text, how did European colonialists in the Caribbean view forests? – PG – L
9) In which part of the Caribbean is the forest cover largely intact? – PG – R
Puerto Rico
10) Beginning in the seventeenth century, the Caribbean forests were removed for all of the following purposes, EXCEPT (ship building, to clear land for sugarcane cultivation, fuel for sugar processing, Timber for home building, the export of tropical hardwoods). – PG – R
The export of tropical hardwoods
11) How much of its original forest cover has Haiti lost? PG -R
97% , only 3% remains
12) On which island of the Caribbean did HIV/AIDS first appear? PG – L
13) What is the approximate population of the Caribbean? PG 149 – R
44 Million
14) Which pattern of emigration from the Caribbean is LEAST likely to occur?
A Haitian migrates to Liverpool, England ?
15) Which Caribbean countries have the lowest rates of natural increase in the region? – PG 150 – L
Cuba and Puerto Rico
16) Which U.S. city has become the destination of choice for Cubans migrating to the United States? – PG 150 – R
Miami Florida
17) What percentage of the people in Haiti between the ages of 15 and 49 are infected with the HIV/AIDS virus? – PG 150 – R
1.9% of the population
18) Which of the following is NOT believed to be a cause of the high rate of HIV/AIDS in the Caribbean? – PG 150 – L
Tourism and Prostitution
19) What is the Caribbean diaspora? – PG 150 – R
The economic flight of the Caribbean people across the globe
21) What was the most common number of crops grown under the plantation system of agriculture? – PG 151 – L
One. Mono-crop production
22) Why were many cities of the Caribbean surrounded by walls? – PG 152 – L
Spanish Caribbean cities were laid on grid pattern and susceptible to counter European raids
24) What is creolization? – PG 155 – L
Blending of African, European, and some Amerindian
25) Which of the following is NOT one of the reasons for treating the Caribbean as a region that is distinct from Latin America? – PG 140 – R
The reason it is lies within its distinct cultural and economic history
26) What element of plantation life was missing from the Caribbean when Europeans established the plantation economy there? – PG 155 – L
Labor / Indentured labor
27) What is “indentured labor”? – PG 155 – L
Workers contracted to labor on estates for a set period of time, often several years
28) Maroon societies were composed of which group of people? – PG 154 – R
Groups of runaway slaves
29) By the middle 1800s, when most colonial governments in the Caribbean began to free slaves, they sought indentured laborers from which other world region(s)? – PG 155 – L
Often from South, Southeast and east Asia
30) From which country did the indentured workers who migrated to Guyana and Trinidad come? –PG 155 – L
31) From which part of Africa did the majority of slaves who were brought to the Caribbean come?–PG 154 – figure
West Africa, especially Gold Coast (now Ghana), Bight of Biafra (now Nigeria) Angola, and southern Africa
32) What are Maroon societies -PG 154 – R
Hidden settlements of escaped slaves existed wherever slavery was practiced
33) In which Caribbean country is the Santeria religion most common? – PG 155 – L
34) What well-known form of music is most closely associated with the Caribbean?—PG 155 – R
Reggea, calypso, meringue, rumba, zouk, steel drums
35) What is the most common language in the Caribbean? – PG 155 -L
36) By the early twentieth century, which foreign country was dominant in the Caribbean?
United States
37) What was the name of the official United States policy that held that the United States would not tolerate European military involvement in the Western Hemisphere? – PG 158 – R
Monroe Doctrine
38) Which of the following is TRUE of Cuba? (1990, the country denounced communism, Since 1995 the country has had multi-party democracy, Raul Castro succeeded his brother Fidel Castro as President in 2008, It has the fastest growing population in the Caribbean, in 2001 Cuba launched a failed invasion of the U.S. )
Raul Castro succeeded his brother Fidel Castro as President in 2008
in 2001 Cuba launched a failed invasion of the U.S.
40) Which country runs the Latin American School of Medicine (ELAM) that trains doctors from the Americas? – PG 160 – R
41) During this country’s Operation Bootstrap, island leaders encouraged U.S. investment by offering cheap labor, local tax breaks, and, most importantly, federal tax exemptions. – PG 163 – L
Puerto Rico
42) What was the name of the initiative designed to launch rapid industrialization in Puerto Rico?–PG 13 – L
Operation Bootstrap
43) Historically, what crop has been the most important one in the Caribbean?
Sugar Cane
44) As of 2001, how many Free Trade Zones were there in the Dominican Republic? – PG 163 – R
45) The rise of offshore banking in the Caribbean is most closely associated with ________, which began this industry in the 1920s. – PG 164 – L
47) This city is now the largest home port for cruise lines and the second largest cruise-ship port in the world in terms of total visitors.—PG 165 – L
48) The ________ basis of Caribbean households is often singled out as a distinguishing characteristic of the region. – PG 166 – R
Matriarchal (female-dominated)
50) What factor has prevented Caribbean countries from reaping the full benefits of their extensive investment in education? – PG 168 – L
Most leave the Caribbean – Brain Drain
Beneath which part of the United States is its largest aquifer, the Ogallala Aquifer, located?- PG 72 L
Great Plains
What are the primary compounds found in acid rain? – PG 73 L
Sulfer Dioxide and Nitrogen Oxides
What type of pollution is the greatest cause of acid rain?- PG 73 R
Atmospheric Pollution
Which North American region is complex, and is made up of drowned river valleys, bays, swamps, and low barrier islands? – PG 74- R
Atlantic Coastline
Which North American region lies west and north of the Piedmont and is an internally complex zone of higher and rougher country reaching altitudes of 3,000-6,000 – PG 74 – R feet?
Appalachian Highlands
In what region of the United States is the Piedmont located?- PG 69 – MAP
Which North American region features mountain-building, alpine glaciation, and erosion?- PG 74 – R
Which North American region is the transition zone between nearby flat lowlands and steep mountain slopes?- PG 74 -R
Piedmont region
What areas of North America would be most vulnerable to climate change?PG 77 – L
Coastal localities – especially low lying zones in the Arctic, along the East Coast, and in the Gulf of Mexico
Currently, how many people live in the North American Region?- PG 77 – R
345 million
What region of the United States contains the country’s densest population settlement?- PG 78 – R
Where is Megalopolis located? – PG 78 – R
NYC – 22 million
Boston – 7.6 million
Baltimore / Wash DC – 8.6 million
Philadelphia – 6.5 million
When did the third stage of North America’s settlement end? – PG 79 – R
Just after 1910
Cultural geographers estimate that Native American populations in 1500 c.e. at ________ for the continental United States and another 1.2 million for Canada, Alaska, Hawaii, and Greenland – PG 79 – R
3.2 million
During what period of time has the Sunbelt region of the United States grown most quickly? – PG 81 – L
Since the 1970s the southern states From Carolinas to TX grew more than NE and Midwest.
1990’s – GA, FL, TX and NC grew by more than 20%.
Dallas Ft Worth, Houston, Atlanta had some of the fastest metropolitan grown between 2000-2010
Today what percentage of the North American population is urban?– PG 81 – L
Many city planners and developers are involved in ________, an urban design movement stressing higher-density, mixed-use, pedestrian-scaled neighborhoods where residents can walk to work, school, and entertainment – PG 82 – R
New Urbanism
During which era of the Historical Evolution of the U.S. City did the city first develop a star-shaped pattern?- PG 81 – R
Streetcar Suburbs
During which era of the Historical Evolution of the U.S. City did suburban growth begin? – – PG 81 – R
Technological Revolution in the 1920s – The mass production of cars.
What do we call the situation wherein metropolitan areas sprawl in all directions and suburbs take on many of the characteristics of traditional downtowns?– PG 81 – R
Urban decentralization
This is the process involving the displacement of lower-income residents of central-city neighborhoods by higher-income residents, the improvement of deteriorated innercity landscapes, and the construction of shopping complexes, sports and entertainment attractions, and convention centers in selected downtown locations. – PG 82 – L
What do we call new suburbs that include retailing, industry, office, and entertainment activities, but are less connected to the central city, and more connected to other suburban centers? – PG 82 – L
Edge Cities
Today, approximately how many undocumented immigrants live in the US?— PG 85- L
Approx 11 -12 Million
What percentage of today’s Toronto population is foreign-born? _______________– PG 86 – L
What term refers to the situation in which a group of people with a common background and history identify with one another? – P 84 – R
This is the process in which immigrants were absorbed by the larger host society- PG 84 – R
Cultural Assimilation
An estimated ________ Mexican-born residents (more than 10 percent of Mexico’s population) now live in the United States.- PG 85 – L
12 million
Almost half of U.S. Hispanics live in this state.- PG 85 figure
During which period did the largest number of immigrants to the United States come from Southern and Eastern Europe? == PG 85 – L
Phase 3 – 1870-1920 – during industrialization in the US, offering escape to political strife and poor economies in S and E Europe.
What Canadian province has a majority of French-Canadian citizens?- PG 87 – figure
In which of the places would one find a concentrated Cajun culture?– PG 86 – R and PG 87 figure
Acadia – southwestern Louisiana
What cultural homeland is home to the Inuit? – PG 91 – L
Quebec / Eskimo North American Indian and Inuit populations — in both United States and Canada
More than ________ percent of Quebec’ population speaks French, and language remains the “cultural glue” that holds the homeland together — PG 86 – R
What is the “cultural glue” that holds Quebec together? – PG 86 – R
The French language
Which language may soon surpass English as the leading global language of Internet users?
What waterway opened up the Great Lakes to improved global trade connections? – PG 90 – L
St. Lawrence Seaway
The United States consumes about how many times as much oil as it produces?PG 93 – R
10 million barrels per day – about half of the total consumption
What employment sector is identified with information processing?- PG 95 – L
What employment sector is identified with natural resource extraction, including mining and agriculture?-
PG 95 – L

46) What employment sector is identified with services?- PG 95 – L
What are the boundaries of Latin America? PG 102 – R
Rio Grande (called Rio Bravo in Mexico) to Tierra del Fuego
How many residents does a city need in its metropolitan area to qualify as a megacity?
10 Million
What is the greatest threat to biodiversity in Latin America?
Global demand for natural resources?
Over the last 40 years, approximately what percentage of the Brazilian Amazon rainforest has been destroyed?
Which Latin American country is most closely associated with deforestation?
What percentage of the world’s plant and animal species are found in the Amazon rainforest?
At least 50%
What is grassification?
Conversion of a rain forest into pasture
What city in Latin America was designed to be, and is an example of a sustainable city?
What is the source of approximately 70 percent of Mexico City’s water?
Wells were dug to tap into the freshwater aquifer – apprx 70% of the water of the city is from the aquifer
What is the major environmental problems is associated with Mexico City and Santiago?
Air pollution
What is the name of the mountain chain that extends the length of South America’s west coast?
What is the most distinctive characteristic of the Amazon River?
Largest river by volume and area in the world
Drains 8 countries
Home to the largest rain forest
How long are the Andes Mountains?
5,000 miles (8,000 kilometers)
What are the two largest cities in Latin America?
Sao Paulo and Mexico City
Historically, these places have been underused as areas of settlement in Latin America, especially compared to settlement patterns in other regions.
Along major rivers
Where are the people of Latin America concentrated? – PG 113 – L
Major population clusters Central Am / Mexico are in the interior plateaus and valleys
What material(s) provided the initial wealth of many countries in the Andes Mountains?
Silver, gold, tin, and iron
What is El Niño? – PG 111
Occurs when warm Pacific current arrives along the normally cold coastal waters of Ecuador and Peru in Dec, around Christmastime. Happens every few years
What country of Latin America has the region’s largest population?
Sao Paulo
What is urban primacy? – PG 114 – L
A condition in which a country has a primate city 3-4 times larger than any other city in the country
Urban primacy occurs when
The cities become hubs for communication and transportation ??
In the Latin American city model, what land use is located along the “spine”? – PG 114 – L
Elite spine = newer commercial and business development
Along the spine = superior services, roads, and transportation
Beside the spine = best residential zones, malls
What is the major reason for the preference for urban life in Latin America?
Higher social status and economic opportunities
A system wherein peasants farm small plots of land for their own subsistence is referred to as
In Latin America, what did agrarian reform accomplish? – PG 116 – L
Peasants demanding redistribution of land
What are a major reasons for the rural-to-urban migration in Latin America?
culture and economic factors, culture for ppl in cities had higher status and greater economic opportunity
Throughout most of the 20th century, Latin America experienced ________ population growth rates.
Which country in Latin America sends the largest number of legal immigrants to the United States?
What is a mestizo? – PG 117 – R
People of mixed European and Indian ancestry
Why did Japanese people migrate to Latin America?
First migrated as agricultural workers (coffee estates)
Which country in South America has long attracted Bolivian and Paraguayan laborers?
What evidence demonstrates the resilience of the Indian cultures in Latin America?
What factor was most crucial to the survival of the remaining indigenous people of Latin America?
Which Amerindian group lived in the Valley of Mexico, the site of modern day Mexico City?
After a century-and-a-half of colonization, what was the size of the indigenous population of Latin America?
One – tenth the original size
What is the ethnicity of the majority of people in Latin America?
Complex ethnic bland has evolved
What language is the second-most common in Latin America? – PG 120 – R
2/3rd speak Spanish
1/3 speak Portuguese
Historically, what has been the policy of most countries regarding Indian languages in Latin America?
Until recently it was actively discouraged
Which of the following is an example of syncretic religion in Latin America? – PG 122 – L
Mayan practice of paying tribute to spirits of the underworld related to Catholic saints
Which European country had a territorial conflict with Argentina over the Falkland Islands in the early 1980s?
Great Britain
When the countries of Latin America regained their independence, who were the leaders?
Military takeovers are historically frequent – as are dictatorships
Since 1980 – democratic leaders are more common
What trade block is the most important one in Latin America?
Which of the following countries are members of the North American Free Trade Agreement?
US, Mexico, and Canada
What are Colombia’s FARC and ELN?
Guerilla groups
Approximately how many people today are employed in maquiladoras in Mexico?
Over 1 million
In recent years, what kind of economic activity has Costa Rica been attracting?
High – tech
By what name do we know the Mexican assembly plants that line the border between Mexico and the United States?
With respect to the success of maquiladoras, which of the following is NOT one of Mexico’s competitive advantages?
Why did the number of people employed in Mexican maquiladoras begin to drop after 2001?
Since 2003 – china has been favored with lower wages
What Latin American country is the world leader in coffee production?
What is dollarization? – PG 133 – R
Process in which a country adopts – in whole or in part – the US dollar as the official currency
What is dependency theory? – PG 131 R
The expansion of European capitalism created the regions’ underdevelopment.
What is import substitution?
?? is a trade and economic policy which advocates replacing foreign imports with domestic production.

What are some of the rights that the Declaration of Rights of Man guarantees French citizens?
Liberty property security and resistance to oppression
What caused peasants to oppose many of the reforms of the church
The peasants believed in the church and preferred to follow the guidance on matters of tradition and spirituality
What did European monarchs fear from France?
They worried that peasant revolts similar to the ones in France could break out in their own countries
What political factions made up the legislative assembly?
Radicals moderates and conservatives
What effects did that September massacres have on the government?
The national convention was created, France became a republic, and men gained the right to vote
What was the stated aim of Robes Pierre and his supporters?
To build a “Republic of virtue” by wiping out every trace of France’s past
What were some consequences of the Reign of Terror?
Robespierre was arrested and executed.
French nobility who fled country to escape the Revolution
What were the goals and results of the establishment of the national bank and an efficent tax collection system in France?
Their goals were to build a stable economy and equality in taxes. Their results were that paper money of uncertain value flooded the country’s economy.
What were the goals and results of enacting the Napoleonic code of law?
The goal was to create a uniform law across all of France that was published and available to all and contained no secret exceptions. The result was that laws were clearer and more accessible and it also superseded the former conflict between royal legislative power.
Reign of terror
This was the period in France where Robespierre ruled and used revolutionary terror to solidify the home front. He tried rebels and they were all judged severely and most were executed
Napoleon Bonaparte
Overthrew the French revolutionary government (The Directory) in 1799 and became emperor of France in 1804. Failed to defeat Great Britain and abdicated in 1814. Returned to power briefly in 1815 but was defeated and died in exile.
a direct vote of all the people of a country or district on an important matter; a referendum
a signed written agreement between two or more parties (nations) to perform some action
Napoleonic Code
a comprehensive and uniform system of laws established for France by Napoleon
Battle of Trafalgar
an 1805 naval battle in which Napoleon’s forces were defeated by a British fleet under the command of Horatio Nelson
considered to be the most advanced country of Europe
the center of the Enlightenment
Old Regime
the political and social system that existed in France before the French Revolution
France’s three social classes
First Estate
Catholic Clergy, exempt from taxes
Second Estate
Nobility, exempt from taxes
Third Estate
97% of the population (the rest of France) They consisted of the bourgeoisie, the san-culottes and the peasants; they paid high taxes and had no special privileges
First group of the Third Estate
Second group of the Third Estate
workers of france’s cities; poorest; tradespeople, apprentices, laborers, domestic servants; low wages; not alot of food.
they formed the largest group of the Third Estate
they quoted Rousseau and Voltaire and began demanded equality, liberty, and democracy
this is how Enlightenment ideas forced change
economic troubles in France
increase in cost of living, taxes, shortage of grain, crop failures. these are examples of ________ ________ __ ______
Louis XVI
King of France (1774-1792). In 1789 he summoned the Estates-General, but he did not grant the reforms that were demanded and revolution followed. Louis and his queen, Marie Antoinette, were executed in 1793.
Marie Antoinette
Queen of France (as wife of Louis XVI) who was unpopular her extravagance and opposition to reform contributed to the overthrow of the monarchy; she was guillotined along with her husband (1755-1793) She gambled and left huge debt
Estates General
France’s traditional national assembly with representatives of the three estates, or classes, in French society: the clergy, nobility, and commoners. The calling of this in 1789 led to the French Revolution.
the staple of the diet of the common people of France
clergy and the nobles
they dominated the Estates General
Third Estate
the two privileged estates could always outvote this estate
the Third Estate delegates, mostly members of the ___________ whose views had been shaped by the Enlightenment
Emmanuel Joseph Sieyes
(During the Estates-General) a leading spokesperson for the viewpoint of the Third Estate who was a clergyman sympathetic to their cause
National Assembly
Called first as the Estates General, the three estates came together and demanded radical change. It passed the Declaration of the Rights of Man in 1789. (p. 585)
June 17, 1789
Third estate declares itself the National Assembly.
the establishment of the National Assembly
this vote was the first deliberate act of revolution
Tennis Court Oath
A pledge made by the members of France’s National Assembly in 1789, in which they vowed to continue meeting until they had drawn up a new constitution
July 14, 1789
Bastile Day. The day the people stormed the Bastille Prison which was also an armory that stored all the guns and powder. Similar to our 4th of July. Celebrated today as Independence Day in France.
Great Fear
A wave of senseless panic that spread through the French countryside after the storming of the Bastille in 1789
declaration of the rights of man and of the citizen
French Revolution document that outlined what the National Assembly considered to be the natural rights of all people and the rights that they possessed as citizens
Liberty, Equality, Fraternity
Slogan of the French Revolution
Olympe de Gouges
she published a declaration of the rights of women
Many of the National Assembly’s early reforms focused on the ______
selling the church’s land
this is how France helped pay off their huge debt
this part of France’s population was offended because they though the pope should rule over a church independent of the state.
limited constutional monarchy
the National Assembly drafted a new constitution, what type of government was established?
legislative assembly
A French congress with the power to create laws and approve declarations of war, established by the constitution of 1791.
food shortages and government debt
even with a new government, France still experienced these problems
radicals, moderates, and conservatives
three general groups of the Legislative Assembly
sat on left and opposed the idea of a monarchy and wanted sweeping changes
sat in the center and wanted some changes
sat on the right side and upheld the idea of a limited monarchy and a few changes
French nobles who fled from France during the peasant uprisings. They were very conservative and hoped to restore the king to power.
those without breeches. they were small shopkeepers that wanted the Revolution to bring even higher changes to France. They did not have a role in the assembly
(T/F) The war began badly for the French
Paris palace into which the royal family was forced to take up residence
September Massacres
Event in which angry mobs invaded the prisons of Paris and slaughtered the priests and aristocrats suspected of treason
National Convention
A new governing body that was established after the Legislative Assembly disposed of the constitution and monarchy
Constitution of 1791
Under pressure from radicals in the streets and among its members, the Legislative Assembly set aside the ___________ of ____ (year)
radical political organization
L’Ami du Peuple
newspaper edited by Jean-Paul Marat that translated to friend of the people
Georges Danton
French revolutionary leader who stormed the Paris bastille and who supported the execution of Louis XVI but was guillotined by Robespierre for his opposition to the Reign of Terror
king to common citizen/prisoner
The National Convention had reduced Louis XVI’s role from that of a ____ to ______ ______/________
A machine for beheading people, used as a means of execution during the French Revolution.
Battle of Valmy
Disorganized French armies won a moral victory (not really much more than an artillery duel) vs. the Prussians. Blocked the Prussian march on Paris. French armies then went on to occupy the Austrian Netherlands, Savoy(king of Sardinia had joined Austrians) and Mainz.
Maximilien Robespierre
“The incorruptible;” the leader of the bloodiest portion of the French Revolution. He set out to build “a republic of virtue.”
Committee of Public Safety
Established and led by Robespierre, fixed bread prices and nationalized some businesses. Basically secret police and also controlled the war effort. Instigated the Reign of Terror.
he suggested that it enabled French citizens to remain true to the ideals of the Revolution
this is how Robespierre justified his use of terror
fellow radicals
“enemies of the Revolution” according to Robespierre
The Terror
Term used to describe the revolutionary violence in France, when radicals under the leadership of Maximilien Robespierre executed tens of thousands of people deemed enemies of the revolution.
Congress of Vienna
Meeting of representatives of European monarchs called to reestablish the old order after the defeat of Napoleon.
Russia, Prussia, Austria, Great Britain, and France
five “great powers”
Klemens von Metternich
This was Austria’s foreign minister who wanted a balance of power in an international equilibrium of political and military forces that would discourage aggression. He was the most influential of the representatives of the Congress of Vienna
balance of power
Condition of roughly equal strength between opposing countries or alliances of countries.
three goals of the congress of vienna
surround France with strong countries, balance of power, restore royal families to thrones
Political authority conferred by law or by a state or national constitution
the congress of vienna
this created a time of peace in Europe that would last for 40 years
the congress of vienna was a victory for this group of people
Holy Alliance
agreement promoted by Czar Alexander I, by which most European powers promised to uphold Christian virtues like peace and charity. Only Britain, Turkey, and the Pope refused to join the Holy Alliance. However, few took the agreement very seriously.
Concert of Europe
A series of alliances among European nations in the 19th century, devised by Prince Klemens von Metternich to prevent the outbreak of revolutions
the revolution; no
this had given Europe its first experiment in democratic government; did it work? (yes or no)
the Congress of Vienna left a feeling of
Informal social gatherings at which writers, artists, philosophes, and others exchanged ideas
the cultural capital of Europe
Marie-Therese Geoffrin
Famous Salon hostess. Invited brilliant minds including Voltaire, Baron de Montesquieu, and Diderot. Made exchange of ideas fashionable.
Denis Diderot
Philosopher who edited a book called the Encyclopedia which was banned by the French king and pope.
the arts (music, literature, painting, and architecture)
the Enlightenment ideals were reflected in this
An artistic style of the seventeenth century characterized by complex forms, bold ornamentation, and contrasting elements
baroque styles could be seen in elaborate palaces such as this
A revival of the literary, architectural, musical, and artistic forms that are considered a standard or model, and therefore “classical”
Pamela (by Samuel Richardson)
considered the first true English novel
enlightened despots (“absolute ruler”)
Absolute rulers who used their power to bring about political and social change
Catherine the great
An “enlightened despot” of Russia whose policies of reform were aborted under pressure of rebellion by serfs
Frederick the great
King of Prussia from 1740 to 1786. Enlightened despot who enlarged Prussia by gaining land from Austria when Maria Theresa became Empress. Enlightened despot
Joseph II
son of Maria Theresa, granted religious freedom and abolished serfdom

1906 – Federal Food and Drug Act
This act prohibits the sale of adulterated or mislabeled food, drinksand drugs
1914 – Harrison Narcotic Act
This act limits the transport of opium. In order to purchase opium, a prescription is required.
1938 – Food Drug and Cosmetic Act
This act made the food and Drug Act more comprehensive to include cosmetics. The act also defines misbranding or adulteration of drugs to be illegal, This act requires drug companies to provide package inserts,requires that habit-forming drugs be labeled “may be habit forming” , requires that a new drug has to be proven safe under FDA guidelines before marketing
1951 – Durham Humphrey Amendment
This act distinguishes legend drugs(prescription) from the over the counter drugs (OTC). This act requires companies to label legend drugs “Caution:Federal law prohibits dispensing without a prescrition”, requires physician supervision for the purchase of legend drugs. Also, over the counter drugs without medical supervision are required to have on the label: Product Name, Name and Address of manufacturer, Active ingredients, quantities of all other ingredients whether active or not
1962 – Kefauver-Harris Amendment
All drugs made from 1938 forward must be proven save and effective. Also the FTC now handles drug advertisement. Stricter requirements for drug approval. Manufacturersmust now register annually, be inspected ever 2 years, and report adverse effects of drugs.
1970 – Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act (Controlled substance Act – CSA)
Drug enforcement agency (DEA) was formed. Also controlled substanced were placed in schedules I-V based on abuse potential.Schedule I drugs have the highest abuse potential and schedule V drugs have the lowest abuse potential.
1970 – Poison Prevention packaging act
This act required childproof packaging on most drugs dispensed in a pharmacy. Drugs that are exempt from this act are drugs used in emergency situations, such as dispensing nitroglycerin, or if a drug is packaged in such a small quantity it would not hard a child under 5 years old.
1983 – Orphan Drug Act
This act enables the FDA to promote the research and marketing of drugs needed for the treatment of rare diseases.
1984 – Drug price Competition and Patent-term restoration Act( Hatch-Waxman Amendment)
This act streamlines the process for granting approval of generic drugs. It also give manufacturers incentives to develop new drugs by giving patent extensions. This act allows generic drug companies the ability to rely on safety and efficacy findings of an innovator’s drug after the expiration of the patent.
1988 – Food and Drug Administration Act
This act established the FDA as an agency of the Department of Health and Human Services. Any adverse drug reactions and outcomes should be reported to the FDA
1988 – Prescription Drug Marketing Act
This act banned the sale, trade, or purchase of drug samples
1990 – Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (OBRA)
This act requires a pharmacist to attempt or offer counsel to patients on all new prescriptions. Pharmacist must provide anem and description of drug, how much should be taken, side effects, contraindications, interactions, adverse effects, storage, refill information, and what to do if a dose is missed.
1996 – Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)
This act created rules regarding the privacy/security of patient health information. This act provides limitations on who can access, distribute, and receive patient information. This act also makes health insurance portable for people switching jobs. This act also includes provisions that make health care information processing more cost effective by requiring standardized electronic submissions of claim information.
2006 – Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act (CMEA)
This act limits the purchase of pseudophedrine(pse) products to 3.6g of pse per dat or 9g per 30 days
Class I Recall
An attempt must be made to notify the patient that the drug he/she may be taking could cause serious harm or death
Class II recall
The probability of serious harm is not likely and the effects may be temporary or reversable. This recall does not go to the customer level and is usually due to problems with consistency of potency
Class III recall
Not likely to cause any serious adverse effects and does not go to the customer level
OTC labeling must contain:
Product Name, manufacturer address, net contents, all ingredients(active or inactive), habit-forming drugs contained within, caution/warning labels, directions for use(drug’s purpose, dosage, frequency of administration in accordance to meals, symptoms, etc, route of administration)
Food, Drug, and cosmetic act requires precription drugs to contain:
Name/address/phone# of dispensing pharmacy, patient and doctor’s name, prescription number and the date filled, drug name/strength/quantity/directions for use, name/initials of dispensing pharmacist or technician, patient address, expiration date, refill information, precautions, the statement “federal law prohibits dispensing without a prescription”, package insert on selected drugs.
Package inserts must contain:
Description of the drug, Clinical pharmacology, indications and usage, contraindications/precautions/warnings/adverse reactions, drug abuse/dependance/overdosage information, dosage/administration information, the date of the most recent label revision
Package inserts must be distributed with the following drug classes:
Oral contraceptives, estrogen-containing and progestational drugs, intrauterine contraceptive devices, diethylstilbestrol products, accutane, metered-dose inhalers
National Drug Code (NDC)
Each drug produced by a manufacturer is identified with a specific NDC number. THe NDC number is composed of three sets of numbers, which identifies the manufacturer, drug, and pack size.
NDC first set (five numbers) indicate what?
NDC second set/middle set (four numbers) indicates what?
Specific drug – each drug has its own number
NDC last two numbers indicate what?
Package size – (100 tablets may be 01, 500 tablets may be 05)
Schedule I drugs
These drugs have NO accepted medical use in the united states. These drugs have the highest abuse potential
Schedule II drugs
These drugs may NOT be refilled. The ordering of these drugs requires a DEA 222 form. The returning of out-of-date schedule II drugs requires a DEA 222 form. These drugs have a high abuse potential that may lead to sever physical or psychological dependence
Schedule III drugs
These drugs may be refilled 5 times in a six month period. These drugs have less potential for abuse/dependence than schedule I or schedule II drugs
Schedule IV drugs
These drugs may be refilled 5 times in a 6 month period. These drugs have less potential for abuse/dependence than schedule II/III drugs.
Schedule V drugs
These drugs have less potential for abuse than schedule II, III, and IV drugs.
Schedule I
Schedule I
Schedule I
Schedule I
Schedule I
Schedule II
Schedule II MS Contin
Schedule II Adderal
Schedule II Codeine
Schedule II
Schedule II Dolophine
Schedule II Oxycontin
Schedule II Dilaudid
Schedule II Duragesic
Schedule II Demerol
Schedule II Ritalin
Schedule II Seconal
Codeine w/ acetaminophen (tylenol No. 3)
Schedule III
Hydrocodone w/ acetaminophen (vicodin, lorcet, lortab, norco)
Schedule III
Drobabinol (Marinol)
Schedule III
Anabolic steroids(testosterone)
Schedule III
Cough syrups containing hydrocodone
Schedule III Tussionex
Benzodiazepines(diazepam, alprazolam, lorazepam)
Schedule IV
Schedule IV Fastin
Schedule IV Talwin
Schedule IV Solfoton
Schedule IV Durad, Tepanil, Tenuate
Antitussives w/codeine
Schedule V Robitussin AC
Schedule V Lomotil
Controlled substance inventory must be done how often?
Every two years
Two file Prescription filing system #1:
One file for CDS-CII and CDS-CIII-CV(marked with a red “C” one inch high at thebottome right corner) and another file for all other prescriptions
Two file prescription filing system #2:
One file for CDS-CII only. Another file for CDS CIII-CV and all other drugs (CDS-CIII must be marked with a one inch high red “C” on the bottom right corner)
Three file prescription filing system:
One file for CDS-CII, one file for CDS- CIII-CV and one file for all other prescriptions
DEA 222
Used for purchsing and returning of outdated CII drugs (blue copy:purchaser keeps for 2 years, green copy:seller sends to local DEA, brown copy:seller keeps on file)
DEA 106
Used to report lost or stolen controlled substances. (required when 5% of yearly product sold is missing – ie 50 tablets from a 1000 yearly supply)
DEA 41
Used to document the destruction of controlled substances
DEA 224
needed for a pharmacy to dispense controlled substances
DEA 363
needed to operate a controlled substance treatment program or compound controlled substances
DEA 225
needed to manufacture or distribute controlled substances
A doctor that precribes medications must have this?
DEA Number
Valid DEA Number
2 letters followed by 7 numbers. First letter is an A or B. Second letter is first letter of last name. The last number of the sum of odd numbers + (sum of even number) * 2 should equal the last number
Orange Book(approved drug products w/therapeutic equivalence evaluations)
Compares therapeutic equivalence using an alphabetic rating system. A rated products can be substituted and B rated products cannot because they are not bioequivalent. This is published yearly.
USP/NF US pharmacopoeia/National Formulary
Contains monographs and chemical characteristics of drugs
USPDI US pharmacopoeia dispensing information
Volume I:Drug info for healthcare providerVolume II: Drug info for patientsVolume III: Therapeutic equivalency information and pharmacy law
US Pharmacopoeia general chapter 797:
States the procedures and requirements for pharmaceutical compounding of sterile preparations
Drug facts and comparisons
Contains a comprehensive listing of drugs and comparative drugs. These drugs are organized by therapeutic class and provide general information with a list of monographs. Also contains listing of drug manufacturers, addresses and phone numbers. Updated monthly
Drug Topics Red Book
Gives a listing of drugs by pricing, strengths, sizes, manufacturers, brands, and generics
Handbook on injectable drugs
Lists injectable drug information such as compatability, storage and dosages
Physician’s Desk Reference(PDR)
Contains packet insert drug information intended for physicians and is published annually. Contains color pictures with a list of drug manufacturers including addresses and phone numbers
Mosby’s Complete Drug Reference
Lists generic drugs in alphabetical order. Contains additional drug information
American Drug Index
Drugs are listed alphabetically and provide brand,generic and the chemical names of the drugs. Gives alist of manufacturers, strengths and dosage forms of the drugs listed.
Handbook of injectable drugs
Used to determine the compatibility of medications that will be used in an IV bag. Shows the compatability, solubility, and stability of medications
Material Safety Data Sheets
MSDS provides information on hazardous materials that may be in the pharmacy and also provides information on disposal, storage, safe use and clean up of these medications
When ordering a CIII medication what document is required for proof of receipt?
Commercial invoice
Because federal and state record keeping requirements can vary in each state, which law should be followed?
The most stringent law
For general laws concerning pharmacy rules and regulations, which law should be followed?
The most stringent law
To whom are drug recalls, drug reactions, and outcomes reported?
When drug manufacturers notify a pharmacy of a drug recall , how are the affected drugs identified?
Lot number and expiration date
What do the first five, middle four, and last two digits of an NDC number represent?
Manufacturer, drug, package size
A list of drug package inserts could be located in which book?
Physicians desk reference
What is the maximum amount of refills for CIII-CV prescriptions in a six-,month period?
5 refills
Who may initiate the ordering of an investigational drug?
Who may order controlled substance schedule CI drugs?
No one
The expiration date on a bottle of Naproxen is 8/08. When will this drug expire?
The last day of august
Which drug recall must go to the customer level?
Class I
Which form is used to report lost or stolen drugs?
DEA 106
Which schedule has no medicinal use?
Schedule I
Which form is used when ordering CII drugs?
DEA 222
A prescription for alprazolam may be refilled how many times?
5 times
Schedule II Dexedrine
APAP + ocycodone
Schedule II Percocet
Schedule II Duragesic
ASA + oxycodone
Schedule II Percodan
ASA + codeine
Schedule III Empirin # 3
Shceulde III Hycodan
ibuprofen + hyrocodone
Schedule III Vicoprofen
carisoprodol + codeine
Schedule III Soma with codeine
hydrocodone + guaifensin
Schedule III Hycotuss
Schedule IV Ativan
Schedule IV Dalmane
proxyphene +APAP
Schedule IV Darvocet N
Schedule IV Xanax
Schedule IV Valium
Schedule IV Tranxene
pentazocine – naloxone
Schedule IV Talwin NX
Schedule IV Talwin
Schedule IV Restoril
Schedule IV Klonopin
Schedule IV Halcion

day-to-day changes in atmospheric conditions, including temperature, air pressure, humidity, wind, cloud coverage, or precipitation
long-term average of weather in an area
type of temperate climate over land
type of temperate climate near an ocean or sea
dry, cold climate zone above 60 degree latitude
seasonably variable climate zone between 40 and 60 degrees latitude, north or south of the equator
warm, moist climate zone near the equator
air mass
large body of air with the same temperature and humidity
a severe storm
where two different air masses meet
process of heat transfer by the circulation or movement of a liquid or a gas
moisture in the air
jet stream
fast moving stream of wind where cold, polar air meets warm air from the equator
rain shadow effect
when wind flow over mountains produces moist conditions on the windward side of the mountains and dry conditions on the leeward side
the spread of desert environments
a long period of unusually dry weather
measures wind speed
measures air pressure
relative humidity
a percentage of the maximum amount of water vapor the air can hold at its current temperature
wind vane
measures wind direction
acid rain
rain that contains more acid than normal
air pressure
the pressure caused by the weight of a column of air pushing down on an area
elevation above sea level
the envelope of gases that surrounds Earth
the process by which molecules of water vapor in the air become liquid water
Coriolis effect
the change that Earth’s rotation causes in the motion of objects and that explains how winds curve
the amount of mass in a volume
the process by which water molecules in liquid water escape into the air as water vapor
global warming
a gradual increase in the average temperature of Earth’s atmosphere
greenhouse effect
the process by which heat is trapped in the atmosphere by gases that form a “blanket” around Earth
greenhouse gases
gases in the atmosphere that trap energy
a brownish haze that is a mixture of ozone and other chemicals, formed when pollutants react with each other in the presence of sunlight
any form of water that falls from clouds and reaches Earth’s surface
the amount of force pushing on an area
the lowest layer of Earth’s atmosphere
water cycle
the continual movement of water among Earth’s atmosphere, oceans, and land surface through evaporation, condensation, and precipitation

The French new deal gave workers the right to
Use collective bargaining
The purpose of Stalins five year plan was to
Transform the USSR from an agricultural into and industrial economy
Who was the head of the nazi propaganda ministry?
Joseph Gobbles
Mussolini’s Fascist government attempted to control it’s citizens through
Mass propaganda
As a director of the Ss, Heinrich himmlers focus was on controlling the German people by using strategies such as
Terrorizing people with secret police, concentration camps, and execution squads
Enforcement of the Treaty of Versailles began with the issue of
The British economist who argued that economic depressions should be combated through government spending to create jobs and increase demand was named
John Maynard Keys
How did collectivism under Joseph Stalin affect Russia?
It led to widespread famine.
Why was Mussolini’s movement appealing to the Italian middle class?
They thought a strong central government would prevent from socialism and communism
Why were U. S. bank loans to Germany Vital to the European economy after World War I?
Germany used the loans to pay reparations to Britain and France.
The leading policy-making body of the Soviet Communist government was called the
A period of low economic activity and rising unemployment is called
An economic depression
Increased government activity in the economy during the Great Depression led to
People following political leaders who offered simple solutions in return for dictatorial power
One of the most effective strategies implemented by Adolf Hitler to end feh depression in Germany was
Creating a massive rearmament program to provide jobs
Which of the following is the title of a major Nazi propaganda film directed by Leni Riefenstahl?
Triumph of the will
A government that aims to control the political, economic, social, intellectual, and cultural lives of its citizens is classified as
Who led the Spanish military in a revolt against the democratic government?
Francisco Franco
In 1924, an international attempted to deal with runaway Germany inflation by creating the Dawes Plan, which
Reduced Germany’s reparations debt
How did Benito Mussolini gain the support of the Catholic Church?
He expanded Vatican City and officially recognized Catholicism as the state religion
Stalin gained control over the Communist party by
Purging people he thought were a threat
In Italy’s fascist state, the nation was glorified over the individual and the government did not tolerate
What was Kristallnact, which happened on November 9, 1938?
A destructive rampage against German Jews led by Nazis
The Nazis encouraged radio listening because
Radio could be used for political purposes
Hitler ended Germany’s depression, economic woes, and unemployment by
Implementing public works projects and a rearmament program
Hitler’s political theories were based on
Racism and Nationalism
Parliamentary systems failed in most European states, in part, because
These stares had little democratic tradition
A factor in leading many Germans to accept Adolf Hitler and the Nazi Party was
The belief that Hitler had ended the country’s economic depression
The government established in Germany after the end of World War 1 was called
The Weimar Republic
In Germany, inflation and unemployment during the Great Depression paved the way for
New social programs
What did the Nuremberg laws do?
They excluded Jews from German citizenship and forbade mixed marriages between Jews and non-Jews
Stalin’s five-year plans were intended to transform the Soviet Union into
An industrial society
The Great Depression was caused primarily by
An economic downturn and the U. S. Stock market crash.
In explaining the causes of the Great Depression, economist John Maynard Keynes noted that
Unemployment was due to declining demand, not overproduction
Which of the following weakened the League of Nations?
That the U. S. Did not join the League of Nations
Under Mussolini, the Italian Fascists used propaganda to
Control public opinion

At about eight months of age, people across the world start to ________ strangers; as adults, they prefer the
company of those whose attributes are ________ to their own.
fear; similar
enjoy; different
fear; different
enjoy; simila

Every nongenetic influence, from prenatal nutrition to the people and things around us, in an aspect of our
gender schema.
personal space.

3. The impact of our cultural backgrounds on the development of our personal values best illustrates the influence of
A. temperament.
B. individualism.
C. personal space.
D. the environment.

4. The study of the relative power and limits of genetic and environmental influences on behavior and personality
traits is known as
A. molecular genetics.
B. evolutionary psychology.
C. behavior genetics.
D. gender typing.

5. A behavior geneticist would be most interested in studying hereditary influences on
A. skin color.
B. sexual anatomy.
C. physical attractiveness.
D. personality traits.

6. A human sperm cell contains
A. 23 chromosomes.
B. 23 genes.
C. 46 chromosomes.

7. Chromosomes are contained within
A. brain cells.
B. sperm cells.
C. blood cells.
D. all of these types of cells.

8. DNA is a complex
A. sex hormone.
B. gender schema.
C. molecule.
D. synapse.

9. The biochemical units of heredity that make up the chromosomes are called
A. genes.
B. schemas.
C. teratogens.
D. neurotransmitters

10. A segment of DNA capable of synthesizing a specific protein is called a
A. gene.
B. gender schema.
C. chromosome.
D. neurotransmitter.

11. Depending on environmental conditions, specific genes can be either
A. norms or schemas.
B. active or inactive.
C. identical or fraternal.
D. X chromosomes or Y chromosomes.

12. The genome is the complete
A. collection of sexual characteristics regulated by the X and Y chromosomes.
B. range of traits that contribute to reproductive success.
C. set of genetic material in an organism’s chromosomes.
D. set of interactions between genes and environments.

13. Identical twins originate from the fertilization of
A. a single egg cell by a single sperm cell.
B. two egg cells by a single sperm cell.
C. a single egg cell by two sperm cells.
D. two egg cells by two sperm cells.

14. Identical twins are most likely to share a similar prenatal environment if they share the same
A. placenta.
B. reproductive capacity.
C. norms.
D. gender schemas.

15. Dante is healthier than his twin brother because he developed with a better placental barrier against viruses. This
best illustrates the impact of ________ on development.
A. temperament
B. gender schemas
C. prenatal environment
D. genetic predispositions

16. Twin studies suggest that Alzheimer’s disease is influenced by
A. testosterone.
B. gender schemas.
C. heredity.
D. gender typing.

17. Compared with identical twins, fraternal twins are ________ similar in neuroticism and ________ similar in risk
of divorcing.
A. more; less
B. less; more
C. more; more
D. less; less

18. Compared with fraternal twins, identical twins are much more similar in
A. extraversion.
B. neuroticism.
C. temperament.
D. all of these characteristics.

19. Environmental influences on personality traits are most clearly highlighted by comparing
A. identical twins raised apart with fraternal twins raised apart.
B. identical twins raised together with fraternal twins raised together.
C. identical twins raised apart with fraternal twins raised together.
D. identical twins raised together with identical twins raised apart.

Although identical twins have been shown to have some amazing psychological similarities, one should be
cautious about attributing these similarities to genetic factors because
A. the twins may have been raised in completely different environments.
B. genetic factors influence physical, not psychological, characteristics.
C. any two strangers are likely to share a string of coincidental similarities.
D. many fraternal twins have been shown to be psychologically different from each other.

21. The personalities of adopted children
A. are very similar to the personalities of the other children in their adoptive families.
B. are very similar to the personalities of their biologically related siblings.
C. are not very similar to the personalities of their adoptive parents.
D. are more similar to the personalities of their caregiving adoptive parents than to the personalities of their
biological parents.

22. The home environment most clearly has a greater influence on children’s ________ than on their ________.
A. temperament; political attitudes
B. extraversion; table manners
C. religious beliefs; personality traits
D. gender identity; gender schemas

23. Research most clearly suggests that personality traits are more strongly influenced by
A. genes than by home environment.
B. home environment than by genes.
C. genes than by peers.
D. home environment than by peers.

24. An infant’s temperament refers most directly to its
A. ability to learn.
B. social connectedness.
C. emotional excitability.
D. physical health.

25. The labels “easy,” “difficult,” and “slow-to-warm-up” are used to refer to differences in an infant’s
A. gender schema.
B. personal space.
C. temperament.
D. gender typing.

26. Pat is normally very restless and fidgety, whereas Shelley is usually quiet and easygoing. The two children most
clearly differ in
A. sex chromosomes.
B. gender schemas.
C. temperament.
D. gender roles.

27. Difficult babies with an intense and highly reactive temperament tend to be
A. intelligent and imaginative.
B. irritable and unpredictable.
C. fearless and assertive.
D. extraverted and cheerful.

28. A child’s temperament is likely to be
A. difficult to observe.
B. stable over time.
C. a product of parenting style.
D. a reflection of his or her gender schema.

29. Who are likely to show the greatest similarity in temperament?
A. Ruth and Ramona, identical twins
B. Philip and Paul, fraternal twins
C. Larry and Laura, brother and sister
D. Vincent Sr. and Vincent Jr., father and son

30. To estimate trait heritability, researchers are most likely to make use of
A. the pruning process.
B. gender schemas.
C. gender typing.
D. twin studies.

31. Heritability refers to the extent to which
A. unrelated individuals share common genes.
B. genetic mutations can be transmitted to one’s offspring.
C. trait differences among individuals are attributable to genetic variations.
D. adult personality is determined by infant temperament.

32. The heritability of a specific trait will be greatest among
A. genetically similar individuals who have been raised in similar environments.
B. genetically similar individuals who have been raised in dissimilar environments.
C. genetically dissimilar individuals who have been raised in similar environments.
D. genetically dissimilar individuals who have been raised in dissimilar environments.

33. Gender differences in heritable personality traits cannot necessarily be attributed to male-female genetic
differences because
A. physical maturation proceeds at a different rate for males and females.
B. variations in temperament contribute to gender differences.
C. heritable traits can be influenced by social environments.
D. males and females are also affected by their different sex hormones.

34. An African butterfly that is green in the summer turns brown in the fall thanks to a temperature-controlled genetic
switch. This best illustrates that genes are
A. schemas.
B. self-regulating.
C. gender typed.
D. protein molecules.

35. The unique temperaments of children evoke predictable responses from their caregivers. This best illustrates the
________ of nature and nurture.
A. evolution
B. interaction
C. heritability
D. independence

36. People have always responded so positively to Alyssa’s good looks that she has developed a socially confident
and outgoing personality. This best illustrates
A. the impact of temperament on gender identity.
B. that gender schemas and social roles are complementary.
C. the interaction of nature and nurture.
D. the reciprocal influence of norms and roles.

37. Assessing possible links between specific chromosome segments and alcohol dependence would be of greatest
interest to a(n)
A. evolutionary psychologist.
B. molecular geneticist.
C. collectivist.
D. social learning theorist.

38. Identifying specific DNA sequences associated with the traits of anger and anxiety best illustrates a potential
benefit of
A. plasticity.
B. the pruning process.
C. gender typing.
D. molecular behavior genetics.

39. The ability to provide would-be parents with information regarding their fetus’ risk for a learning disorder is a
potential benefit of
A. gender typing.
B. evolutionary psychology.
C. molecular behavior genetics.
D. social learning theory.

40. Evolutionary psychology studies the evolution of behavior and the mind using principles of
A. social learning theory.
B. gender typing.
C. temperament.
D. natural selection.

41. The reproductive advantage enjoyed by organisms best suited to a particular environment is known as
A. self-regulation.
B. behavior genetics.
C. natural selection.
D. collectivism.

42. Dmitry Belyaev and Lyudmila Trut successfully domesticated wild foxes by means of
A. heritability.
B. selective mating.
C. gene splicing.
D. hormone injections.

43. Evolutionary psychologists are most likely to emphasize that human adaptiveness to a variety of different
environments has contributed to human
A. gender typing.
B. genetic mutations.
C. gender schemas.
D. reproductive success.

44. A random error in gene replication is known as a
A. gender schema.
B. genome.
C. mutation.
D. natural selection.

45. Our adaptive flexibility in responding to different environments contributes to our fitness, which refers to
A. random errors in the replication of genes.
B. the extent to which variation among individuals can be attributed to their differing genes.
C. our ability to survive and reproduce.
D. the interaction of our genes with our environment.

46. If a genetically based attraction to beautiful people contributes to survival, that trait will likely be passed on to
subsequent generations. This best illustrates
A. gender typing.
B. natural selection.
C. behavior genetics.
D. collectivism.

47. An evolutionary psychologist would suggest that people are genetically predisposed to
A. fear dangerous animals.
B. love their own children.
C. seek healthy-looking mates.
D. do all of these things.

48. According to evolutionary psychologists, behaviors that promote reproductive success are likely to be
A. socially prohibited.
B. genetically predisposed.
C. ecologically disruptive.
D. disease-producing.

49. According to evolutionary psychologists, our predisposition to overconsume fatty junk foods illustrates that we
are biologically prepared to behave in ways that promoted the ________ of our ancestors.
A. gender typing
B. personal space
C. reproductive success
D. neuroticism

50. Evolutionary psychologists would be most likely to predict that
A. more people are biologically predisposed to fear guns than to fear snakes.
B. children are more likely to be valued by their biological fathers than by their stepfathers.
C. people are the most romantically attracted to those who are the most genetically dissimilar to themselves.
D. genetic predispositions have little effect on our social relationships.

51. Compared with women, men are more likely to
A. initiate sexual activity.
B. think about sex.
C. comply with direct requests for casual sex.
D. behave in all of these ways.

52. Compared with women, men are ________ likely to feel comfortable about having casual sex with different
partners and ________ likely to cite affection as a reason for their first sexual intercourse.
A. less; more
B. more; less
C. less; less
D. more; more

53. Compared with men, women are ________ likely to agree to go to bed with a stranger and ________ likely to
perceive simple friendliness as a sexual come-on.
A. more; less
B. more; more
C. less; more
D. less; less

54. Professor Assad suggested that a cautious attitude toward sexual encounters has proven to be more reproductively
advantageous to women than to men because the birth process is time-consuming. This suggestion best illustrates
the logic of a(n) ________ theory of sexual behavior.
A. evolutionary
B. social learning
C. Freudian
D. role

55. Evolutionary psychologists would be most likely to attribute gender differences in attitudes toward casual sex to
the fact that men have ________ than do women.
A. more gender schemas
B. stronger gender identity
C. less individualism
D. greater reproductive potential

56. Males in their ________ are most likely to be sexually attracted to women who are several years older rather than
several years younger than themselves.
A. teens.
B. twenties.
C. thirties.
D. forties.

57. Women are most likely to be sexually attracted to men who seem
A. shy.
B. emotionally reactive and intense.
C. interested in casual, uncommitted sex.
D. mature and affluent.

58. Brittla spends a lot of money on cosmetics and expensive clothing in order to attract a desirable mate. According
to evolutionary psychologists, Brittla’s behavior is a product of
A. individualism.
B. collectivism.
C. gender schemas.
D. genetic predispositions.

59. Critics of evolutionary psychology are most likely to suggest that it underestimates the
A. impact of genetic predispositions on human sexual behavior.
B. impact of cultural expectations on human sexual behavior.
C. variety of traits that contribute to reproductively successful behaviors.
D. extent to which certain gender differences in sexual behavior are common to all

60. Those who defend evolutionary psychology against criticism are most likely to suggest that evolutionary
A. generate testable predictions.
B. are intended to be descriptive but not explanatory.
C. are more applicable to men than to women.
D. are more applicable to humans than to nonhuman animal species.

61. Compared to environmentally impoverished rats, those rats housed in enriched environments experienced a
dramatic increase in the number of their
A. genomes.
B. schemas.
C. synapses.
D. sex hormones.

62. Lacking any exposure to language before adolescence, a person will never master any language due to the
________ of unemployed neural connections.
A. natural selection
B. mutation
C. pruning
D. temperament

63. For children from impoverished environments, stimulating educational experiences during early childhood are
most likely to
A. facilitate the development of collectivism.
B. decrease their emotional attachment to their own parents.
C. have no discernable effect on subsequent academic performance.
D. prevent the degeneration of activated connections between neurons.

64. Children raised in the same family are not especially likely to have similar personalities. This most clearly implies
that we should be cautious about attributing personality to
A. gender schemas.
B. parental influences.
C. temperament.
D. peer influences.

65. An awareness that children’s temperaments influence parents’ child-rearing practices should inhibit our tendency
A. emphasize the interaction of nature and nurture.
B. assess the stability of personality traits.
C. blame parents for our own dysfunctional characteristics.
D. identify cultural differences in child-rearing practices

66. It has been suggested that our sensitivity to peer influence is genetically predisposed because it has facilitated the
process of human mating. This suggestion best illustrates
A. gender schemas.
B. collectivism.
C. gender typing.
D. an evolutionary perspective.

67. Kids choose peers who share their own attitudes and interests as their friends. This best illustrates
A. gender typing.
B. a selection effect.
C. personal space.
D. temperament.

68. In comparison to parental influence, peer influence is
A. more likely to affect a child’s educational success.
B. less likely to affect whether a teen smokes.
C. more likely to affect a child’s English language accent.
D. less likely to influence whether a preschooler will reject a certain food.

69. Cultural diversity best illustrates our
A. human temperaments.
B. genetic variations.
C. gender identities.
D. adaptive capacities.

70. The invention and transmission of dating and courtship customs best illustrate
A. personal space.
B. cultural influence.
C. the priming process.
D. the male answer syndrome.

71. The preservation of innovation best illustrates the survival value of
A. culture.
B. gender schemas.
C. individualism.
D. personal space.

72. Norms are best described as
A. the biochemical units of heredity.
B. a person’s characteristic emotional reactivity.
C. rules for socially acceptable behavior.
D. buffer zones we like to maintain between ourselves and others.

73. Frans avoids talking with food in his mouth because other people think it is crude and inappropriate. This best
illustrates the impact of
A. individualism.
B. schemas.
C. stereotypes.
D. norms.

74. Personal space refers to
A. our inner private thoughts and personally subjective feelings about ourselves.
B. the distance we like to maintain between ourselves and other people.
C. the priority we give to our own personal needs over group needs.
D. areas of a home, such as a bedroom, where privacy is important.

75. Studies indicate that
A. North Americans prefer more personal space than do Latin Americans.
B. the French prefer more personal space than do the British.
C. Arabs prefer more personal space than do Scandinavians.
D. women prefer more personal space than do men.

76. Compared with northern Europeans, people from Mediterranean cultures are
A. more likely to be emotionally expressive and more likely to be punctual.
B. less likely to be emotionally expressive and less likely to be punctual.
C. more likely to be emotionally expressive and less likely to be punctual.
D. less likely to be emotionally expressive and more likely to be punctual.

77. Since 1960, most Western cultures have changed with remarkable speed. The LEAST likely explanation for these
variations involves changes in
A. communication systems.
B. genetic predispositions.
C. scientific knowledge.
D. social norms.

78. Since 1960, Americans have experienced a(n)
A. increase in the incidence of depression and a decrease in work hours.
B. decrease in the incidence of depression and an increase in work hours.
C. increase in the incidence of depression and an increase in work hours.
D. decrease in the incidence of depression and a decrease in work hours.

79. Individualism is to collectivism as ________ is to ________.
A. norm; role
B. nature; nurture
C. independence; interdependence
D. identical twin; fraternal twin

80. A willingness to switch jobs and move from one part of the country to another best illustrates one of the
consequences of
A. collectivism.
B. gender typing.
C. individualism.
D. gender schemas.

81. A collectivist culture is especially likely to emphasize the importance of
A. social harmony.
B. personal privacy.
C. innovation and creativity.
D. racial diversity.

82. People living in a culture that promotes collectivism are more likely than those in individualist cultures to report
A. happiness.
B. family loyalty.
C. personal freedom.
D. marital romance.

83. Professor Shankar believes that her students’ most important personal characteristics are those that distinguish
them as uniquely different from most other people. Her attitude best illustrates one of the consequences of
A. individualism.
B. gender typing.
C. collectivism.
D. temperament.

84. When Mr. Thompson lived overseas for a year, he was very surprised at how much respect he received from
people simply because he was an older person. His sense of surprise suggests that he had NOT previously lived in
a culture characterized by
A. social diversity.
B. collectivism.
C. extraversion.
D. individualism.

85. Compared with people in individualist cultures, those in collectivist cultures are
A. less likely to display signs of humility and more likely to defer to others’ wishes.
B. more likely to display signs of humility and less likely to defer to others’ wishes.
C. less likely to display signs of humility and less likely to defer to others’ wishes.
D. more likely to display signs of humility and more likely to defer to others’ wishes.

86. Religious and ethnic diversity are most likely to be appreciated in a culture characterized by
A. gender schemas.
B. individualism.
C. gender typing.
D. collectivism.

87. The importance of romance in marriage relationships is most strongly emphasized in cultures characterized by
A. gender schemas.
B. collectivism.
C. gender typing.
D. individualism.

88. Compared with many Asian and African parents, today’s Westernized parents are more likely to teach their
children to value
A. civil obedience.
B. emotional closeness.
C. personal independence.
D. family traditions.

89. Parents in Asian cultures are more likely than parents in Westernized cultures to encourage children to
A. pick out and purchase their own clothes.
B. participate in household activities.
C. publicly protest repressive government policies.
D. establish close friendships with ethnically diverse groups of people.

90. Cross-cultural research on human development indicates that
A. person-to-person differences within cultural groups are larger than differences between groups.
B. differences among cultural groups largely reflect genetic differences among racial groups.
C. gender differences in behavior result from differences in biology rather than from differences in life
D. developmental processes differ greatly among individuals raised in different cultures.

91. In considering gender differences, it is helpful to remember that
A. there are no gender differences in behavior that are common to all human cultures.
B. genetic similarities between the genders are much greater than genetic differences.
C. genetic differences between the genders do not contribute to gender differences in behavior.
D. all of these statements are true.

92. Compared with men, women experience a greater risk of
A. autism.
B. color blindness.
C. eating disorders.
D. antisocial personality disorders.

93. Men and women are most likely to differ in their
A. happiness.
B. intelligence.
C. self-esteem.
D. aggressiveness.

94. The gender gap in aggression is least likely to involve hurting others by means of
A. painful electric shocks.
B. verbal insults.
C. expressing support for war.
D. physical spanking.

95. Which of the following would you MOST likely observe on extended visits to foreign countries?
A. men and women earning approximately the same salaries
B. more women than men holding elected offices
C. more men than women engaged in fistfights
D. men and women sharing equally in the duties of child-rearing

96. In everyday behavior, men are LESS likely than women to
A. smile at others.
B. stare at others.
C. interrupt others.
D. initiate touching others.

97. During the course of a conversation between Lola, Martha, and Gus, which of the following events is most likely
to occur?
A. Gus interrupts Lola.
B. Lola interrupts Martha.
C. Martha interrupts Gus.
D. All of these events are equally likely to occur.

98. Girls typically play in ________ groups than do boys and, during their teens, girls spend ________ time with
friends than do boys.
A. larger; more
B. smaller; less
C. larger; less
D. smaller; more

99. The male answer syndrome suggests that males are less likely than females to demonstrate
A. individualism.
B. gender typing.
C. social modesty.
D. reactive temperaments.

100. Compared with females, males use conversation to
A. explore relationships.
B. communicate solutions.
C. obtain feedback on their views.
D. offer support.

101. When looking for someone to whom they can confide their personal worries, women usually turn to ________
and men usually turn to ________.
A. men; men
B. women; men
C. women; women
D. men; women

102. Women are more likely than men to
A. stare at people who make them angry.
B. interrupt others while they are talking.
C. misperceive simple friendliness as a sexual come-on.
D. tend and befriend.

103. As people progress through adulthood, women become
A. less assertive and men become less empathic.
B. less assertive and men become more empathic.
C. more assertive and men become more empathic.
D. more assertive and men become less empathic.

104. A human egg contains ________ chromosome and a human sperm contains ________ chromosome.
A. a Y; either an X or a Y
B. either an X or a Y; an X
C. an X; either an X or a Y
D. either an X or a Y; a Y

105. Prenatal testosterone secretions exert one of their earliest influences on
A. genes.
B. natural selection.
C. gender schemas.
D. brain organization.

106. Gender differences in verbal fluency are consistent with evidence that part of the
A. frontal lobes is thicker in men than in women.
B. parietal lobes is thicker in men than in women.
C. frontal lobes is thicker in women than in men.
D. parietal lobes is thicker in women than in men.

107. Gender differences in spatial perception skills are consistent with evidence that part of the
A. frontal cortex is thicker in men than in women.
B. parietal cortex is thicker in men than in women.
C. frontal cortex is thicker in women than in men.
D. parietal cortex is thicker in women than in men.

108. Female children are more likely to act like tomboys if they were exposed to excess ________ during their
prenatal development.
B. testosterone.
C. endorphins.
D. ovarian hormones.

109. An infant boy was raised as a girl following a botched circumcision. During adolescence, the child ________
boys and ________ the assigned female identity.
A. wanted to kiss; accepted
B. wanted to kiss; did not accept
C. wanted no part of kissing; accepted
D. wanted no part of kissing; did not accept

110. Behaviors expected of those who occupy a particular social position define a
A. norm.
B. role.
C. schema.
D. temperament.

111. Gender role refers to
A. one’s biological sex.
B. a sense of being male or female.
C. a set of expected behaviors for males and females.
D. a sense of being homosexual or heterosexual.

112. When teased by his older sister, 9-year-old Waldo does not cry because he has learned that boys are not
supposed to cry. Waldo’s behavior best illustrates the importance of
A. temperament.
B. gender roles.
C. testosterone.
D. collectivism.

113. In agricultural societies, children typically socialize into more distinct gender roles than do children in nomadic
societies. This best illustrates that gender-role differences between social groups result from
A. cultural influence.
B. a pruning process.
C. personal space.
D. individualism.

114. The social roles assigned to women and men
A. are virtually the same in all cultures.
B. have been virtually the same in all historical time periods.
C. differ widely across cultures.
D. differ widely across historical time periods but not across cultures.

115. Gender identity refers to
A. one’s biological sex.
B. the sense of being male or female.
C. the set of expected behaviors for males and for females.
D. how masculine a boy is or how feminine a girl is.

116. A boy who consistently exhibits traditionally masculine interests and behavior patterns demonstrates the impact
A. neuroticism.
B. collectivism.
C. the X chromosome.
D. gender typing.

117. Ten-year-old Migdalia insists on wearing very feminine-looking clothes because she wants to appear ladylike.
This best illustrates the impact of
A. individualism.
B. personal space.
C. collectivism.
D. gender typing.

118. Social learning theorists emphasize that
A. observation and imitation play a crucial role in the gender-typing process.
B. children will exhibit only those gender-typed behaviors for which they have been directly rewarded.
C. children will not learn gender-typed behaviors if the same-sex parent is absent from the home.
D. all of these statements are true.

119. Mr. Eskenazi frowns when his son cries but hugs his daughter when she cries. Mr. Eskenazi’s contribution to the
gender typing of his children would most likely be highlighted by
A. twin studies.
B. social learning theorists.
C. adoption studies.
D. evolutionary psychologists.

120. The belief that boys are more independent than girls is a
A. gender role.
B. gender identity.
C. gender schema.
D. gender type.

121. Children tend to organize their worlds into male and female categories. This best illustrates their use of
A. the pruning process.
B. behavior genetics.
C. gender schemas.
D. the male answer syndrome.

122. When his mother offered to play leapfrog with him, Jorge protested, “I’m not going to play a girl’s game!”
Jorge’s reaction best illustrates the impact of
A. behavior genetics.
B. gender schemas.
C. the pruning process.
D. collectivism.

123. Professor Smith emphasizes that gender similarities and differences are products of a continuous interplay
among genetically predisposed traits, culturally shaped roles, and personally constructed expectations and
assumptions. The professor’s emphasis best illustrates
A. collectivism.
B. individualism.
C. natural selection.
D. a biopsychosocial approach.

124. Those who suggest that choices we make today determine what our future will be like are emphasizing the
importance of
A. behavior genetics.
B. human responsibility.
C. personal space.
D. collectivism.

125. As members of the human family, we all share a common
A. personal space.
B. gender schema.
C. biological heritage.
D. gender role.

126. People’s reactions to our genetic dispositions constitute part of our
A. temperament.
B. environment.
C. individualism.
D. personal space.

127. External influences on development such as social support are said to constitute our
A. genome.
B. collectivism.
C. environment.
D. temperament.

128. Assessing the relative effects of nature and nurture on individual differences in personality would be of most
direct interest to
A. evolutionary psychologists.
B. collectivists.
C. behavior geneticists.
D. Freudian psychologists.

129. The threadlike structures that contain genes are called
A. synapses.
B. schemas.
C. chromosomes.
D. genomes.

130. Chromosomes are located within human
A. bone cells.
B. genes.
C. neurotransmitters.
D. gender schemas.

131. Genes provide the code for the production of
A. schemas.
B. proteins.
C. synapses.
D. genomes.

132. The nucleus of your body cells contains
A. DNA molecules.
B. chromosomes.
C. genes.
D. all of these elements.

133. The threadlike structures in the cell nucleus are called
A. genes.
B. proteins.
C. genomes.
D. chromosomes.

134. The complete set of genetic instructions in an organism’s chromosomes is called the
A. heritability index.
B. DNA molecule.
C. genome.
D. schema.

135. Our genetic predispositions help to explain
A. our shared human nature but not our human diversity.
B. our human diversity but not our shared human nature.
C. neither our shared human nature nor our human diversity.
D. both our shared human nature and our human diversity.

136. For every three sets of identical twins, one pair of identical twins is likely to have
A. two different genomes.
B. two separate placentas.
C. an extra set of chromosomes.
D. only one sex chromosome.

137. Fraternal twins originate from the fertilization of
A. a single egg cell by a single sperm cell.
B. two egg cells by a single sperm cell.
C. a single egg cell by two sperm cells.
D. two egg cells by two sperm cells.

138. Twin studies suggest that a strong influence on emotional instability comes from
A. genetic predispositions.
B. the Y chromosome.
C. gender schemas.
D. testosterone.

139. Compared with identical twins, fraternal twins are
A. more likely to be the same sex and more likely to be similar in extraversion.
B. more likely to be the same sex and less likely to be similar in extraversion.
C. less likely to be the same sex and less likely to be similar in extraversion.
D. less likely to be the same sex and equally likely to be similar in extraversion.

140. Genetic influences on personality traits are most clearly highlighted by comparing ________ with ________.
A. identical twins raised together; identical twins raised apart
B. fraternal twins raised together; fraternal twins raised apart
C. identical twins raised together; fraternal twins raised together
D. fraternal twins raised apart; identical twins raised together

141. Identical twins reared apart have ________ similar personalities than identical twins reared together and
________ similar personalities than fraternal twins reared apart.
A. more; more
B. less; less
C. more; less
D. less; more

142. Studies of identical twins who had been reared apart has most clearly increased scientific appreciation for the
importance of ________ in personality development.
A. testosterone
B. gender schemas
C. home environments
D. genetic influences

143. The best reason to be cautious about attributing all the personality similarities of separated twins to genetic
factors is that
A. home environments have less impact on personality than does peer influence.
B. adoption agencies tend to place separated twins in similar homes.
C. infant temperaments have a strong impact on personality development.
D. adopted children’s personalities are highly similar to those of their adoptive parents.

144. Identical twins separated at birth and raised in completely different cultures would be most likely to have similar
A. gender schemas.
B. religious beliefs.
C. temperaments.
D. norms.

145. We are likely to ________ the personality similarities among children in the same family, and we are likely to
________ the personality similarities between parents and their children.
A. overestimate; underestimate
B. underestimate; overestimate
C. underestimate; underestimate
D. overestimate; overestimate

146. Adoptive parents are most likely to influence the ________ of their adopted children.
A. political attitudes
B. gender identity
C. extraversion
D. temperament

147. Adopted children grow up to be
A. more self-giving than average.
B. less psychologically disordered than average.
C. more extraverted than average.
D. less confused about their identity than average.

148. Temperament is an individual’s characteristic level of
A. social connectedness.
B. emotional reactivity.
C. physical health.
D. intelligence.

149. Our enduring personality traits are first evident in our differing
A. birth weights.
B. gender schemas.
C. temperaments.
D. reproductive capacities.

150. Lynnae is usually timid and fearful, whereas her sister Eileen is typically relaxed and cheerful. The two sisters
are most strikingly different in
A. brain maturation.
B. gender schemas.
C. physical health.
D. temperament.

151. Exceptionally inhibited and fearful infants tend to become introverted adolescents. This best illustrates the longterm
stability of
A. temperament.
B. individualism.
C. gender schemas.
D. the X chromosome.

152. Heredity most clearly predisposes individual differences in
A. norms.
B. gender typing.
C. temperament.
D. personal space.

153. Those who inappropriately attribute children’s troubling personality traits to inadequate parental nurture should
be reminded of the importance of
A. gender identity.
B. genetic predispositions.
C. personal space.
D. the X chromosome.

154. Behavior geneticists are most likely to use twin and adoption studies to assess
A. gender schemas.
B. trait heritability.
C. reproductive capacity.
D. brain maturation.

155. A researcher who assesses the heritability of intelligence is most likely a(n)
A. social learning theorist.
B. evolutionary psychologist.
C. behavior geneticist.
D. collectivist.

156. The heritability of a specific trait will be lowest among
A. genetically similar individuals who have been raised in similar environments.
B. genetically similar individuals who have been raised in dissimilar environments.
C. genetically dissimilar individuals who have been raised in similar environments.
D. genetically dissimilar individuals who have been raised in dissimilar environments.

157. Today’s adults are taller and heavier than those of a century ago. The differences between these generational
groups illustrate the impact of
A. genetics.
B. nutrition.
C. temperament.
D. the pruning process.

158. The diversity of human traits is enabled by our shared
A. individualism.
B. temperament.
C. collectivism.
D. adaptive capacity.

159. The impact of genes on observable traits can vary in different environments. Thus, genes are said to be
A. neurotransmitters.
B. gender schemas.
C. self-regulating.
D. chromosome segments.

160. Our selective exposure to those life experiences that are best suited to our unique temperaments best illustrates
the interaction of
A. roles and norms.
B. nature and nurture.
C. individualism and collectivism.
D. neural connections and maturation.

161. Because Marla is the first girl in her fourth-grade class to sexually mature, she is sometimes teased and rejected
by her classmates. Marla’s sense of social isolation and embarrassment result from the interaction of
A. X and Y chromosomes.
B. nature and nurture.
C. schemas and roles.
D. individualism and collectivism.

162. Molecular geneticists would be most interested in studying
A. chromosome segments.
B. collectivism.
C. gender schemas.
D. norms.

163. Pinpointing genes that put people at risk for genetically influenced disorders such as depression and
schizophrenia best illustrates the goals of
A. social learning theorists.
B. Freudian psychiatrists.
C. molecular geneticists.
D. evolutionary psychologists.

164. The capacity to screen and select human fertilized eggs for such desirable personality traits as friendliness and
emotional stability is one of the potentials of
A. the pruning process.
B. molecular genetics.
C. evolutionary psychology.
D. gender typing.

165. Evolutionary psychologists emphasize that environmentally adaptive behaviors are those that have promoted
A. reproductive success.
B. personal happiness.
C. cultural diversity.
D. individualism.

166. If a genetic predisposition to fear darkness contributes to reproductive success, that trait will likely be passed on
to subsequent generations. This best illustrates
A. collectivism.
B. behavior genetics.
C. gender typing.
D. natural selection.

167. The prevalence of genetically predisposed traits that have a reproductive advantage is best explained in terms of
A. gender typing.
B. natural selection.
C. behavior genetics.
D. gender schema.

168. Evolutionary psychology would be most helpful for understanding the ________ human aggression.
A. social causes of
B. reproductive advantages of
C. cross-cultural variations of
D. remedial treatments of

169. Mutations result from random errors in
A. gender schemas.
B. gene replication.
C. natural selection.
D. gender typing.

170. Evolutionary psychologists are most directly concerned with the impact of ________ on behavior.
A. gender schemas
B. collectivism
C. genetic predispositions
D. peer influence

171. An evolutionary psychologist would be likely to suggest that human preferences for sweet-tasting foods
A. have hindered human reproduction.
B. are genetically predisposed.
C. vary widely across cultures.
D. are influenced by gender schemas.

172. The principles of evolutionary psychology would suggest that parents are genetically predisposed to experience
the strongest grief over the deaths of their
A. infant sons.
B. infant daughters.
C. adolescent sons.
D. adolescent daughters.

173. Which of the following terms refers to the biologically and socially influenced characteristics by which people
define male and female?
A. schema
B. gender
C. genome
D. Y chromosome

174. Compared with men, women are ________ likely to initiate sex and ________ likely to think about sex.
A. less; more
B. more; more
C. less; less
D. more; less

175. When male and female student research assistants at Florida State University sexually propositioned an attractive
person of the opposite sex, their invitations were accepted by
A. half or more of the men but virtually no women.
B. a sizable minority of men but virtually no women.
C. half or more of the men and a sizable minority of women.
D. a sizable minority of both men and women.

176. Compared with women, men are more likely to
A. report low levels of marital satisfaction.
B. smile at members of the opposite sex.
C. perceive simple friendliness as a sexual come-on.
D. attribute their first sexual behaviors to feelings of affection.

177. Men rape women much more frequently than women rape men. Evolutionary psychologists would be most likely
to explain this in terms of sex differences in
A. individualism.
B. reproductive capacity.
C. extraversion.
D. body size.

178. Professor Archibald suggests that men are more likely than women to initiate casual sex because this has
historically served to be a more successful reproductive strategy for men than for women. The professor’s
suggestion best illustrates a(n) ________ theory.
A. social learning
B. evolutionary
C. role
D. Freudian

179. Evolutionary psychologists would be most likely to predict that 40-year-old men will marry women who are
________ than they are.
A. less physically attractive
B. more sexually experienced
C. younger
D. more aggressive toward sexual rivals

180. Evolutionary psychologists have suggested that men are ________ likely than women to prefer mates with a
fertile-looking appearance and ________ likely than women to prefer mates with wealth and social status.
A. more; more
B. less; less
C. more; less
D. less; more

181. Ginger wants to marry someone who will provide financial security for her children. Evolutionary psychologists
would most likely attribute Ginger’s motivation to
A. gender schemas.
B. genetic predispositions.
C. gender typing.
D. individualism.

182. Evolutionary psychologists are most likely to be criticized for
A. providing hindsight explanations for human behaviors.
B. overemphasizing humans’ capacity to learn and adapt to a variety of environments.
C. underestimating gender differences in mate selection.
D. overestimating cultural differences in human sexual behaviors.

183. Critics of evolutionary psychology would be most likely to suggest that it has difficulty accounting for
A. differences in the behavior patterns of males and females.
B. similarities in the behavior patterns of males and females.
C. differences in the behavior patterns of Asians and Americans.
D. similarities in the behavior patterns of Asians and Americans.

184. A stimulating environment is most likely to facilitate the development of a child’s
A. individualism.
B. genome.
C. temperament.
D. neural connections.

185. Unused neural connections in the brain are reduced through a process of
A. mutation.
B. heritability.
C. collectivism.
D. pruning.

186. Carlos was born with cataracts in both eyes. Even though they were removed when he was 5, his lack of visual
experiences during early childhood makes it likely that he has experienced
A. degeneration of neural connections in visual reception areas of the brain.
B. an inability to develop heritable traits.
C. difficulty incorporating new experiences into existing schemas.
D. a massive loss of sensory neurons.

187. Research on brain development suggests that repeated learning experiences seem to
A. strengthen neural connections at the location that processes the experiences.
B. reduce the number of brain cells needed to effectively process information.
C. promote the formation of the brainstem but have no effect on the formation of the cortex.
D. have no effect on the structure of neural tissue.

188. Parents should not take too much blame for the failures and shortcomings of their children because
A. their childrearing mistakes simply reflect that they were not properly raised by their own parents.
B. children typically fail on purpose in order to establish a healthy independence from parents.
C. childrearing practices have little effect on children’s beliefs and values.
D. parental behavior is only one of many factors that influence children’s behavior.

189. The remarkable academic and vocational successes of the children of refugee “boat people” from Vietnam and
Cambodia best illustrate the importance of
A. individualism.
B. temperament.
C. family environment.
D. personal space.

190. Children’s English accents are more likely to be influenced by their
A. peers than by their parents.
B. temperament than by their gender.
C. X chromosome than by their Y chromosome.
D. biological race than by their social environment.

191. Parents can most effectively increase their influence on their children by
A. encouraging their children to achieve athletic success.
B. helping to select their children’s neighborhood and schools.
C. spacing the birth of their children over a large number of years.
D. encouraging them to value individualism.

192. By inventing the custom of potato washing and passing it on to their peers and offspring, young chimpanzees are
exhibiting a basic form of
A. temperament.
B. collectivism.
C. gender schemas.
D. culture.

193. By inventing customs and passing them on to their peers and offspring, chimpanzees exhibit the rudiments of
A. temperament.
B. culture.
C. personal space.
D. heritability.

194. People are most likely to notice the impact of environmental influences on behavior when confronted by
A. identical twins.
B. gender schemas.
C. cultural diversity.
D. human temperaments.

195. The rules of a culture for accepted and expected behavior are
A. stereotypes.
B. norms.
C. gender schemas.
D. temperaments.

196. The practice of covering your mouth when you cough best illustrates the impact of
A. genetic predispositions.
B. gender schemas.
C. personal space.
D. norms.

197. Social norms have been found to
A. facilitate smooth social interaction.
B. vary from one culture to another.
C. free people from uncertainty about how they ought to behave.
D. do all of these things.

198. Even though many chairs in the library study area are unoccupied, Wang chooses to sit right next to Annest.
Annest is most likely to feel uncomfortable because Wang has violated her
A. gender schema.
B. personal space.
C. temperament.
D. gender identity.

199. In which of the following countries do people generally prefer to maintain the largest personal space?
A. France
B. England
C. Mexico
D. Saudi Arabia

200. In comparison to 40 years ago, American women today are more likely to marry for the sake of
A. economic advantage.
B. reproductive success.
C. gender identity.
D. love.

201. Interdependence is to ________ as independence is to ________.
A. gender schemas; gender typing
B. nurture; nature
C. chromosomes; genes
D. collectivism; individualism

202. Social roles are especially likely to be central to people’s self-identity in ________ cultures.
A. individualist
B. ethnically diverse
C. collectivist
D. democratic

203. Collectivism is most likely to be emphasized in
A. North America.
B. China.
C. Europe.
D. Australia.

204. In a collectivist culture, individuals are likely to avoid
A. displaying personal humility.
B. embarrassing other people.
C. prolonging conversations.
D. all of these behaviors.

205. Compared with those in cultures that value individualism, people in collectivist cultures are especially likely to
value personal
A. modesty.
B. privacy.
C. freedom.
D. achievements.

206. Compared with those living in individualist cultures, people in collectivist cultures are likely to experience
A. more privacy and less loneliness.
B. less privacy and less loneliness.
C. more privacy and more loneliness.
D. less privacy and more loneliness.

207. One would not observe unusually high rates of divorce in cultures that promote
A. collectivism.
B. ethnic diversity.
C. personal privacy.
D. individual human rights.

208. Compared with Asian parents, North American parents today place
A. more emphasis on obedience and less emphasis on family loyalty.
B. less emphasis on obedience and more emphasis on family loyalty.
C. more emphasis on obedience and more emphasis on family loyalty.
D. less emphasis on obedience and less emphasis on family loyalty.

209. Parents in Westernized cultures are more likely than parents in Asian cultures to encourage children to value
A. nonconformity.
B. gender roles.
C. cultural traditions.
D. enduring friendships.

210. Compared with children raised in Westernized cultures, children in many Asian cultures grow up with a strong
sense of
A. self-consciousness.
B. gender identity.
C. self-esteem.
D. social connectedness.

211. Cross-cultural research on human development indicates that
A. differences among cultural groups largely reflect genetic differences among racial groups.
B. developmental processes are highly similar among individuals raised in different cultures.
C. differences among cultural groups are greater than person-to-person differences within cultural groups.
D. gender differences in behavior result from differences in biology rather than from differences in life

212. Compared with the average man, the average woman is
A. less likely to become sexually re-aroused immediately after orgasm.
B. more likely to commit suicide.
C. less likely to express emotions freely.
D. more vulnerable to depression and anxiety.

213. Research on gender and aggression indicates that
A. women admit to feeling more hostility than do men.
B. in laboratory experiments, men and women are equally likely to give others what they believe are painful
electric shocks.
C. throughout the world, males are more likely than females to commit violent crimes.
D. all of these statements are true.

214. The gender gap in aggression is LEAST likely to pertain to ________ another person.
A. spreading false rumors about
B. physically hitting
C. poisoning
D. shooting

215. Gender differences in physical aggression are greatest in cultures characterized by
A. individualism.
B. the pruning process.
C. gender inequality.
D. extraversion.

216. In a group discussion, women are ________ likely than men to express support for others’ opinions. As group
leaders, women are ________ likely than men to promote a democratic leadership style.
A. less; more
B. more; more
C. less; less
D. more; less

217. During a group conversation, men are more likely than women to
A. stare at other group members.
B. interrupt other speakers.
C. talk assertively.
D. behave in all of these ways.

218. On extended visits to foreign countries, you would be most likely to observe
A. more men than women in political leadership positions.
B. women earning the same amount of money as men.
C. men and women equally involved in child care.
D. men and women equally involved in violent crime.

219. Compared with men, women are more likely to show obvious signs of
A. gender typing.
B. temperament.
C. interdependence.
D. self-esteem.

220. Male self-identity is to ________ as female self-identity is to ________.
A. norms; roles
B. X chromosome; Y chromosome
C. gender typing; gender schemas
D. independence; interdependence

221. Compared with men, women are more likely to talk with others to
A. communicate solutions.
B. explore relationships.
C. demonstrate leadership skills.
D. express their unique opinions.

222. A study of phone communication in France indicated that women make ________ phone calls than men and stay
connected for a ________ period of time than men do when talking to other men.
A. more; longer
B. fewer; shorter
C. more; shorter
D. fewer; longer

223. Women report that their friendships with women are ________ enjoyable and intimate than their friendships
with men. Men report that their friendships with men are ________ enjoyable and intimate than their friendships
with women.
A. more; less
B. less; more
C. more; more
D. less; less

224. As compared to women, men are typically
A. more socially independent and less interested in religion.
B. less socially independent and more interested in religion.
C. more socially independent and more interested in religion.
D. less socially independent and less interested in religion.

225. A baby girl receives a(n)
A. Y chromosome from her father.
B. Y chromosome from her mother.
C. Y chromosome from her father and mother.
D. X chromosome from her father and mother.

226. The prenatal development of the external male sex organs is stimulated by
A. gender schemas.
B. the X chromosome.
C. testosterone.
D. gender typing.

227. Gender differences in spatial perception skills are consistent with evidence that part of the
A. frontal lobes is thicker in men than in women.
B. parietal cortex is thicker in men than in women.
C. frontal lobes is thicker in women than in men.
D. parietal cortex is thicker in women than in men.

228. Genetically female children exposed to excess testosterone during prenatal development subsequently exhibit
more “tomboyish” behaviors than most girls. To avoid overestimating the influence of prenatal hormones on
these behaviors, we should note that these children
A. have unusually reactive temperaments.
B. may be treated more like boys because they frequently look masculine.
C. are affected by a variety of random errors in gene replication.
D. develop a more masculine brain-wiring pattern prior to birth.

229. A genetically female child who receives excess testosterone during prenatal growth is subsequently likely to
A. an unusually strong heterosexual orientation.
B. a female gender role, but a male gender identity.
C. a male body with both X and Y chromosomes, unless there is corrective surgery.
D. more aggressive behavior patterns than most girls.

230. Sets of expected behaviors for males and for females are called
A. gender identities.
B. gender roles.
C. sexual norms.
D. gender types.

231. Maria has always taken responsibility for preparing family meals because she learned that this was expected of
women. Her behavior best illustrates the importance of
A. sex chromosomes.
B. natural selection.
C. temperament.
D. gender roles.

232. It is most likely that in many cultures women’s leadership responsibilities have been limited by their
A. gender identity.
B. sex hormones.
C. gender roles.
D. individualism.

233. A person’s sense of being male or female is his or her gender
A. identity.
B. role.
C. type.
D. schema.

234. The acquisition of a traditional masculine or feminine role is called
A. heritability.
B. behavior genetics.
C. gender typing.
D. gender identification.

235. The impact of rewards and punishments on gender typing is most clearly emphasized by
A. evolutionary psychology.
B. collectivism.
C. behavior genetics.
D. social learning theory.

236. Elton responds to his daughter’s fistfight with, “Good girls don’t fight!” but when his son has a fistfight he says,
“Did you win?!” The role of Elton’s reactions in the gender typing of his children would be of most direct
interest to
A. collectivists.
B. behavior geneticists.
C. social learning theorists.
D. evolutionary psychologists.

237. The tendency to classify various occupations as masculine or feminine has often led men and women to limit
themselves to an unnecessarily restricted range of career options. This best illustrates the impact of
A. temperament.
B. the X chromosome.
C. gender schemas.
D. the pruning process.

238. Children’s tendency to classify toys and songs as either masculine or feminine is most likely to facilitate the
process of
A. behavior genetics.
B. individualism.
C. gender typing.
D. natural selection.

239. Some children become gender typed because they categorize nearly all objects and people as either masculine
and feminine. This best illustrates the importance of
A. collectivism.
B. gender schemas.
C. sex chromosomes.
D. personal space.

240. An integrated understanding of gender differences in behavior in terms of gender norms, sex-related hormones,
and individual expectations regarding gender-appropriate behavior is most clearly provided by
A. the pruning process.
B. collectivism.
C. a biopsychosocial approach.
D. evolutionary psychology.

241. By insisting that humans are “nothing but” products of nature and nurture, we run the greatest risk of
A. collectivism.
B. individual responsibility.
C. natural selection.
D. gender identity.


One facet of marketing is that it is:
a. an approach that focuses on maximizing sales
b. a short-term oriented approach to profit maximization
c. an approach that requires diversity
d. independent of value creativity
e. a philosophy that stresses customer satisfaction

e. a philosophy that stresses customer satisfaction
A business is concerned with many day-to-day activities. Some of the most important of these activities are the planning and development of a product, its pricing policy, and the distribution strategy. These activities are all a part of:
a. a control system
b. human resources
c. accounting
d. production
e. marketing

e. marketing
Which of the following occurs when people give up something in order to receive something that they would rather have?
a. Leveraging
b. Synergy
c. Transformation
d. Exchange
e. Reciprocity

d. Exchange
The concept of exchange is important to marketing because:
a. if all the conditions for an exchange are in place, then the exchange will be completed
b. marketing activities help to create exchange
c. exchange provides money to marketers
d. marketing activities are a requirement for exchange to take place
e. money is the only medium of exchange for business marketers

B. marketing activities help to create exchange
All of the following are marketing management philosophies EXCEPT:
a. sales orientation
b. societal marketing orientation
c. market orientation
d. production orientation
e. profitability orientation

e. profitability orientation
A company that sets its goals and strategies based on what its current equipment can produce, what products engineering can design, and what the company itself can do best, has a(n) _____ orientation.
a. marketplace
b. production
c. market
d. exchange
e. sales

b. production
The _____ orientation assumes people will buy more if aggressive selling techniques are used.
a. market
b. exchange
c. customer
d. production
e. sales

e. sales
Which marketing management philosophy is often adopted by organizations that sell unsought products such as life insurance, retirement plans, and pre-planned funeral services?
a. Profitability orientation
b. Production orientation
c. Marketing orientation
d. Product orientation
e. Sales orientation

e. Sales orientation
Which marketing orientation assumes people will buy more goods and services if aggressive marketing techniques are used?
a. Customer
b. Production
c. Market
d. Sales
e. Marketplace

d. Sales
Which marketing management philosophy assumes that a sale does not depend on an aggressive sales force but rather on a customer’s decision to purchase a product?
a. Sales Orientation
b. Production Orientation
c. Market Orientation
d. Product Orientation
e. Exchange Orientation

c. Market Orientation
A company that wants to implement a market orientation would need to:
a. do research on its customers, competitors, and markets
b. determine how to deliver superior customer value
c. establish and maintain mutually satisfying relationships with customers
d. implement actions that provide value to customers
e. do all of the activities listed

e. do all of the activities listed
An organization with a(n) _____ believes that it exists not only to satisfy customer wants and needs and to meet organizational objectives but also to preserve or enhance individuals’ and society’s long-term best interests.
a. Societal Marketing orientation
b. market orientation
c. ethical business mission
d. focused target market strategy
e. Sales orientation

a. Societal Marketing orientation
When customer expectations regarding product quality, service quality, and value-based price are met or exceeded, _____ is created.
a. Customer Satisfaction
b. a quality rift
c. planning excellence
d. A value line
e. expectation satisfaction

a. Customer Satisfaction
_____ is a strategy that focuses on keeping and improving relationships with current customers.
a. Commitment selling
b. Transactional marketing
c. Relationship marketing
d. Market engineering
e. Organization-customer synergy

c. Relationship marketing
Most successful relationship marketing strategies depend on:
a. customer-oriented personnel
b. effective training programs
c. employees with authority to make decisions and solve problems
d. teamwork
e. all of these

e. all of these
All of the following are good reasons to study marketing EXCEPT:
a. Marketing affects your life every day.
b. Marketing plays an important role in society.
c. Marketing is important to business.
d. Marketing offers outstanding career opportunities.
e. Marketing creates consumer needs.

e. Marketing creates consumer needs.

Human Geography
One of the two major divisions of geography; the spatial analysis of human population, its cultures, activities, and landscapes.
The art and science of making maps, including data compilation, layout, and design. Also concerned with the interpretation of mapped patterns.
Relationship between the portion of Earth being studied and the Earth as a whole.
Spatial Perspective
Observing variations in geographic phenomena across space
5 Themes of Geography
the five themes of geography are location, human-environment interaction, region, place, and movement.
The system used to transfer locations from Earth’s surface to a flat map.
Absolute Location
The position of place of a certain item on the surface of the Earth as expresed in degrees, minutes, and seconds of latitude, 0° to 90° north or south of the equator, and longitude, 0° to 180° east or west of the Prime Meridian passing through Greenwich, England. (Also known as Mathematical Location)
Relative Location
The regional position or situation of a place relative to the position of other places.
Geographic Information System (GIS)
a computer system that can capture, store, query, analyze, and display geographic data. Uses geocoding to calculate relationships between objects on a map’s significance
Remote Sensing
The acquisition of data about Earth’s surface from a satellite orbiting the planet or other long-distance methods.
An area of Earth distinguished by a distinctive combination of cultural and physical features
Formal/Site Region
An area within which everyone shares in common one or more distinctive characteristics, generally identified to help explain broad global or national patterns, generally illustrating a general concept rather than a precise mathematical distribution
Functional Region
Area organized around a node or focal point/place where there is a central focus that diminishes in importance outward. Used to display information about economic areas.
Perceptual/Vernacular Region
A place that people believe exists as part of their cultural identity from people’s informal sense of place such as mental maps.
A book by Ptolemy which was the most detailed description of the known world.
Spatial Distribution
Physical location of geographic phenomena across space. Density, Concentration, and Pattern.
process by which a characteristic spreads across space from one place to another over time (through complex transportation, communications, resulting in complicated interactions) Can mean people in different regions can modify ideas at the same time in different ways.
Relocation Diffusion
The spread of an idea through physical movement of people from one place to another; migrate for political, economic, envir. issues that bring their culture with them to a new place; helps understand spread of AIDS
Expansion Diffusion
The spread of a feature or trend among people from one area to another in a snowballing process
Contagious diffusion
rapid, widespread difufsion of a characteristic throughout the population; diseases and ideas spread without relocation
Hierarchical diffusion
Spread of ana idea from persons or nodes of authority or power to other persons or places of power (hip-hop: low-income people, but urban society); from people/places of power
Stimulus diffusion
spread of an underlying principle, even though a characteristic itself apparently fails to diffuse.
Distance Decay
the diminishing in importance and eventual disappearance of a phenomenon with increasing distance from its origin.
Location Theory
A logical attempt to explain the locational pattern of an economic activity and the manner in which its producing areas
are interrelated. The agricultural location theory contained in the von Thünen model is a leading example.
The expansion of economic, political, and cultural processes to the point that they become global in scale and impact. The processes of globalization transcend state boundaries and have outcomes that vary across places and scales.
Neolithic Revolution
The agricultural revolution- the first time humans began using agriculture.
Chloropleth Map
a thematic map in which ranked classes of some variable are depicted with shading patterns or colors for predefined zones.
Map Distortion
disadvantages for maps depicting the entire world of the: shape, distance, relative size, and direction of places on maps
Isoline Map
a thematic map with lines that connect points of equal value.
Dot Map
a thematic map in which a dot represents some frequency of the mapped variable
Proportional Symbol Map
Portrays numeric quantities with a symbol, with different sizes of symbols being proportional to each others quantities.
The numbering system to indicate the location of a parallel
the numbering system used to indicate the location of meridians drawn on a globe and measuring distance east and west of the Prime Meridian.
Radiation Theory
Humans originated in Africa and then migrated to regions around it.
Cholera Epidemic
One of the first epidemics of disease to be studied by epidemiological methods.
the directness of routes linking pairs of places; an indication of the degree of internal connection in a transport network; all of the tangible and intangible means of connection and communication between places.
Cultural Landscape
A combination of cultural features such as language and religion, economic features such as agriculture and industry, and physical features such as climate and vegetation. (defined by Carl Sauer as an area fashioned from nature by a cultural group) [Cultural Attributes]
Cultural Ecology
Geographic study of human-environment relationships
Cultural Determinism
The way that a cultural environment can influence social development.
Cultural Barriers
Prevailing cultural attitude rendering certain innovations, ideas or practices unacceptable or unadoptable in that particular culture.
The sum total of the knowledge, attitudes, and habitual behavior patterns shared and transmitted by the members of a society. This is anthropologist Ralph Linton’s definition; hundreds of others exist.
Transnational Corporation
A business interaction overseas.
The study of humans.
Sequent Occupancy
The notion that successive societies leave their cultural imprints on a place, each contributing to the cumulative cultural landscape. This is an important concept in geography because it symbolizes how humans interact with their surroundings. [Changing attribute of a place]

The larger a cell becomes, the more demands it puts on its DNA and the cell has more trouble moving enough nutrients and wastes across the cell membrane
What are the two main reasons why cells divide rather than grow indefinitely?
The series of events that cells go through as they grow and divide.
What is the cell cycle?
G1, S, G2, and M
What are the 4 phases of the cell cycle?
The “in-between” period of growth
What is interphase?
G1, S, and G2
What are the three phases of interphase?
The cell does most of its growing, it increases in size, and it synthesizes new proteins and organelles
What happens in the G1 phase?
The chromosomes are replicated and DNA synthesis takes place
What happens in the S phase?
When the DNA replication is complete
When does the G2 phase start>
The organelles and molecules needed for cell division are produced,
What happens in the G2 phase?
Cell divison
What is the M phase also known as>
THe process by which a cell divides into two new daughter cells
What is cell division or the M phase?
Which is the longest phase of the cell cycle?
Which is the shortest phase of interphase>
Mitosis and cytokinesis
What are the two phases of cell division?
the division of the nucleus
What is mitosis?
division of the cytoplasm
What is cytokinesis>
THe Dna must be replicated (S phase)
What must happen before cell division takes place?
A button-like center that holds the chromatids to form a chromosome
What is the centromere?
Genetic information from one generation of cells to the next
What do chromosomes carry?
DNA and proteins
What are chromosomes made of?
One of two identical “sister” parts of a duplicated chromosome
What are the sister chromatids?
They seperate from each other, one going to each of the two new cells
When cell divides, what happens to the sister chromatids?
Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, and Telophase
What are the 4 phases of mitosis?
The chromosomes become visible, the centrioles seperate and move to opposite sides of the cell, the spindle begins to form, and the nuclear envelope and nucleolus breaks down
What happens during prophase?
Chromosomes line up across the middle of the cell
What happens during metaphase?
The centromeres split and chromatids split, and individual chromosomes move to opposite ends of the cell
What happens during anaphase?
The chromosomes begin to break down into a tangle of material, the nuclear envelope reforms around each cluster of chromosomes, the spindle breaks apart, and the nucleolus becomes visible in each daughter nucleus
What happens during telophase?
Prophase and Telophase
Which two phases of mitosis are opposites?
Which is the longest phase of mitosis?
only a few minutes
How long does metaphase last?
When the chromosomes stop moving
When does anaphase stop?
No, only mitosis
After telophase, is cell division complete?
A protein that regulates the timing of the cell cycle in eukaryotic cells
What is cyclin?
Internal and external
What are the two types of regulators?
Proteins that respond to events inside the cell
What are internal regulators?
Internal regulators
Which proteins make sure the cell doesn’t enter mitosis before the DNA has been copied?
Proteins that respond to events outside the cell
What are external regulators?
They direct the cell to speed up or slow doen the cell cycle, and they prevent excessive cell growth.
What are two things that external regulators do?
A disorder in which some of the body’s own cells lose the ability to control growth
What is cancer?
They divide uncontrollably and form masses of cells that can damage surrounding tissue
Because cancer cells don’t respond to the signals that regulate the growth of moth cells, what happens?
Masses of cells that can damage surrounding tissue.
What are tumors?

How old is Miguel?
How old is Isabel?
What was under Alejandro’s bed at home (mexico)?
a sandwich
For vacation where does the family go first?
Where does the Toledo family stay in Madrid?
El Hotel Arosa
What street is the Hotel Arosa located?
la gran vía
What two things did Alejandro forget?
ropa interior and a toothbursh
Who does Alejandro run and help when he hears screaming on the streets bc boys were teasing this girl?
How old is Graciela?
What street does Alejandro find Graciela?
La Gran Vía
What is the name of the gypsy who gives Alejandro the ring (graciela’s mom) ?
What statue does Alejandro see at the Plaza de España
Miguel de Cervantes
Who is Miguel de Cervantes?
the author of Don Quijote
What does Don Quijote think he is?
a knight ( caballero andante)
Does Don Quijote seem crazy to Alejandro?
Who does Don Quijote think the gypsy is disguised as?
Who is Rocinante?
Don Quijote’s horse
When Don takes Alejandro to the jail, what are the crimes of the prisoners?
Singing and being in love
What does Don Quijote do to the prisoners?
releases them from jail
What did the prisoners do when Don called them badly educated?
threw rocks (pierdas) at him
Who is Dulcinea?
Ugly, peasant, Don loves
What happens at the Prado
museum with the painting of Margarita
What statue is in front of the Prado (big artist in spanish)?
Diego Velázquez
What is the painting called with Princess Margarita in it?
Las Meninas
Who painted the painting Las Meninas
Diego Velázquez
Who are Margarita’s parents?
King Felipe IV and Queen Mariana
What does Margarita give Alejandro?
Who is Margarita arranged to marry?
her cousin
At the book store what book does Alejandro go into?
El Lazarillo de Tormes
Who is Lazarillo?
orphan who lives in the streets and robs
Who did Lazarillo used to work for/live with?
El ciego
Who does Lazarillo now live with who is very nice?
El hidalgo
What happened at El Rastro?
handcuffs problem
What is El Rastro?
Outside market with used objects
Why did Isabel call the vendor at El Rastro sexist?
He called the handcuffs wives
Where is Alejandro before the ring shines and he is put with Franz?
in El Rastro
Why is Franz crying?
He is going to get hung for a crime he did not commit (did not steal)
Why didn’t Franz get hung?
Santo Domingo de la Clazada helped him
Who did Alejandro get the ring from
Who did Alejandro get the flower from
Who did Alejandro get the chicken feather from (la pluma)
the judge’s chicken from Franz’s case
Where did he get the handkerchief from (el pañuelo)
Where did Alejandro meet Juana La Loca
at the museo de figuras de cera
Who is Juana La Loca?
her husband died and she’s been carrying him around for 2 years because he cheated on her
Who was Juana’s husband?
What does Juana believe will happen to her husband
he will come back to life
Who is El Ced
the national hero of Spain for awhile
Who are Doña Elvira y doña sol
the daughters of el Ced
What happened to the daughters of el ced
they had bad arranged marriages and their future husbands left them on a mountain
Who saved Doña Elvira y Doña sol
Félez Muñoz (cousin)
Where does Alejandro find about the EL Ced story and his daughters
at the museo de figuras de cera
What is the name of the lion that runs out of the castle and El cid calms?
Who are Don Fernando y don diego
the bad men the two daughters of El Ced were arranged to marry
Where do the Toledos go after Spain?
What happens at el museo de Santa Cruz
Alejandro meets Fernando who is jealous of his famous brother, Carolos I
What happens at La gran fortaleza
Alejandro meets Raquel
Who is Raquel and why is she crying
she can’t marry the one she loves because her boyfriend is jewish and she is christian
Who’s Leopoldo de Austria
future husband of Margarita (her cousin)

Mr. Heck Tate, the sheriff, is the first person to testify. On the night in question, Mr. Ewell called Tate to the house. When the sheriff got there, he found Ewell’s daughter lying on the floor, badly beaten. She told the sheriff that Tom Robinson had raped and beaten her. He then got Tom Robinson, brought him to the Ewell house, and asked Mayella if he was the one. She said he was, so the sheriff arrested Robinson.
Who is the first person to take the stand? Briefly summarize his testimony
He tries to establish which side of the girl’s face was beaten. Tate says that it was the right side: “It was her right eye…I remember now, she was bunged up on that side of her face….”
What does Atticus spend much of his time asking Mr. Tate?
She compares him to a rooster, describing him as “a little bantam cock of a man.” The comparison is fitting because he struts to the stand, has a very red complexion, and his nose is “thin, pointed, and shiny,” like a beak. He speaks loudly and obnoxiously, prompting Scout to describe him as crowing like a rooster.
To what animal does Scout compare Mr. Ewell?
How is the comparison fitting?
They live behind the town dump. Economically and socially they are at the bottom among Maycomb’s white population.
Where do the Ewells live, and what does this say about their social position in Maycomb County?
Ewell is crude and informal. He calls the prosecuting attorney “cap’n” and answers the attorney’s questions rudely and sarcastically. The judge puts a quick end to his offensive behavior: “…let’s get something straight. There will be no more audibly obscene speculations on any subject from anybody in this courtroom as long as I’m sitting here.”
How does Mr. Ewell act when he first takes the stand, and how does Judge Taylor react to him?
Ewell claims that he heard Mayella screaming, so he ran to the house. When he looked in the window, he saw Tom Robinson raping her. He says he then ran around the house to get in but Tom Robinson was already running out the front door. He then went to get the sheriff.
What is Mr. Ewell’s version of what happened?
He wants the court to see that Ewell is left-handed. Heck Tate had testified that the bruises were on the right side of Mayella’s face. This would strongly suggest that the person who hit her was left-handed.
Why does Atticus want Ewell to write his name?
However, Scout is skeptical that the information proves anything. What are her doubts? Scout understands that Atticus is trying to show that Ewell might have been the one who beat Mayella. However, the information does not prove that he did it. For one thing, she reasons, Tom Robinson might be left-handed, too.
Jem thinks that Atticus has clinched the case by establishing that Ewell is left-handed.

All of the following are reported as current liabilities except
a. accounts payable.
b. bonds payable.
c. notes payable.
d. unearned revenues.

b. bonds payable.
A current liability is a debt that can reasonably be expected to be paid
a. within one year or the operating cycle, whichever is longer.
b. between 6 months and 18 months.
c. out of currently recognized revenues.
d. out of cash currently on hand.

a. within one year or the operating cycle, whichever is longer.
The relationship of current assets to current liabilities is used in evaluating a company’s
a. operating cycle.
b. revenue-producing ability.
c. short-term debt paying ability.
d. long-range solvency.

c. short-term debt paying ability.
The entry to record the issuance of an interest-bearing note credits Notes Payable for the note’s
a. maturity value.
b. market value.
c. face value.
d. cash realizable value.

c. face value.
The entry to record the proceeds upon issuing an interest-bearing note is
a. Interest Expense
Notes Payable
b. Cash
Notes Payable
c. Notes Payable
d. Cash
Notes Payable
Interest Payable

b. Cash
Notes Payable
Admire County Bank agrees to lend Givens Brick Company $300,000 on January 1. Givens Brick Company signs a $300,000, 8%, 9-month note. The entry made by Givens Brick Company on January 1 to record the proceeds and issuance of the note is
a. Interest Expense 18,000
Cash. 282,000
Notes Payable 300,000
b. Cash 300,000
Notes Payable 300,000
c. Cash 300,000
Interest Expense 18,000
Notes Payable 318,000
d. Cash 300,000
Interest Expense 18,000
Notes Payable 300,000
Interest Payable 18,000

b. Cash 300,000
Notes Payable 300,000
As interest is recorded on an interest-bearing note, the Interest Expense account is
a. increased; the Notes Payable account is increased.
b. increased; the Notes Payable account is decreased.
c. increased; the Interest Payable account is increased.
d. decreased; the Interest Payable account is increased.

c. increased; the Interest Payable account is increased.
On October 1, Steve’s Carpet Service borrows $250,000 from First National Bank on a 3-month, $250,000, 8% note. The entry by Steve’s Carpet Service to record payment of the note and accrued interest on January 1 is
a. Notes Payable 255,000
Cash 255,000
b. Notes Payable 250,000
Interest Payable 5,000
Cash 255,000
c. Notes Payable 250,000
Interest Payable 20,000
Cash 270,000
d. Notes Payable 250,000
Interest Expense 5,000
Cash 255,000

b. Notes Payable 250,000
Interest Payable 5,000
Cash 255,000
Sales taxes collected by a retailer are recorded by
a. crediting Sales Taxes Revenue.
b. debiting Sales Taxes Expense.
c. crediting Sales Taxes Payable.
d. debiting Sales Taxes Payable.

c. crediting Sales Taxes Payable.
Unearned Rent Revenue is
a. a contra account to Rent Revenue.
b. a revenue account.
c. reported as a current liability.
d. debited when rent is received in advance.

c. reported as a current liability.
Sales taxes collected by the retailer are recorded as a(n)
a. revenue.
b. liability.
c. expense.
d. asset.

b. liability.
The interest charged on a $200,000 note payable, at the rate of 8%, on a 90-day note would be
a. $16,000.
b. $8,888.
c. $4,000.
d. $1,333.

c. $4,000.
On October 1, 2013, Pennington Company issued an $80,000, 10%, nine-month interest-bearing note. If the Pennington Company is preparing financial statements at December 31, 2013, the adjusting entry for accrued interest will include a:
a. credit to Notes Payable of $2,000.
b. debit to Interest Expense of $2,000
c. credit to Interest Payable of $4,000.
d. debit to Interest Expense of $3,000.

b. debit to Interest Expense of $2,000
Reliable Insurance Company collected a premium of $30,000 for a 1-year insurance policy on May 1. What amount should Reliable report as a current liability for Unearned Insurance Revene at December 31?
a. $0.
b. $10,000.
c. $20,000.
d. $30,000.

b. $10,000.
A retail store credited the Sales Revenue account for the sales price and the amount of sales tax on sales. If the sales tax rate is 5% and the balance in the Sales Revenue account amounted to $525,000, what is the amount of the sales taxes owed to the taxing agency?
a. $500,000
b. $525,000
c. $26,250
d. $25,000

d. $25,000
Layton Company does not ring up sales taxes separately on the cash register. Total receipts for October amounted to $27,300. If the sales tax rate is 5%, what amount must be remitted to the state for October’s sales taxes?
a. $1,300
b. $1,365
c. $65
d. It cannot be determined.

a. $1,300
Advances from customers are classified as a(n)
a. revenue.
b. expense.
c. current asset.
d. current liability.

d. current liability.
Sales taxes collected by a retailer are reported as
a. contingent liabilities.
b. revenues.
c. expenses.
d. current liabilities.

d. current liabilities.
Any balance in an unearned revenue account is reported as a(n)
a. current liability.
b. long-term debt.
c. revenue.
d. unearned liability.

a. current liability.
Kelly Rice has a large consulting practice. New clients are required to pay one-half of the consulting fees up front. The balance is paid at the conclusion of the consultation. How does Rice account for the cash received at the end of the engagement?
a. Cash
Unearned Service Revenue
b. Cash
Service Revenue
c. Prepaid Service Fees
Service Revenue
d. No entry is required when the engagement is concluded.

b. Cash
Service Revenue
Current liabilities generally appear
a. after long-term debt on the balance sheet.
b. in decreasing order of magnitude on the balance sheet.
c. in order of maturity on the balance sheet.
d. in increasing order of magnitude on the balance sheet.

b. in decreasing order of magnitude on the balance sheet.
From the standpoint of the issuing company, a disadvantage of using bonds as a means of long-term financing is that
a. bond interest is deductible for tax purposes.
b. interest must be paid on a periodic basis regardless of earnings.
c. income to stockholders may increase as a result of trading on the equity.
d. the bondholders do not have voting rights.

b. interest must be paid on a periodic basis regardless of earnings.
A legal document which summarizes the rights and privileges of bondholders as well as the obligations and commitments of the issuing company is called
a. a bond indenture.
b. a bond debenture.
c. trading on the equity.
d. a term bond.

a. a bond indenture.
Bonds that are secured by real estate are termed
a. mortgage bonds.
b. serial bonds.
c. debentures.
d. bearer bonds.

a. mortgage bonds.
Bonds that are not registered are
a. bearer bonds.
b. debentures.
c. registered bonds.
d. transportable bonds.

a. bearer bonds.
A bondholder that sends in a coupon to receive interest payments must have a(n)
a. unsecured bond.
b. bearer bond.
c. mortgage bond.
d. serial bond.

b. bearer bond.
Investors who receive checks in their names for interest paid on bonds must hold
a. registered bonds.
b. coupon bonds.
c. bearer bonds.
d. direct bonds.

a. registered bonds.
A major disadvantage resulting from the use of bonds is that
a. earnings per share may be lowered.
b. interest must be paid on a periodic basis.
c. bondholders have voting rights.
d. taxes may increase.

b. interest must be paid on a periodic basis.
A bond trustee does not
a. issue the bonds.
b. keep a record of each bondholder.
c. hold conditional title to pledged property.
d. maintain custody of unsold bonds.

a. issue the bonds.
A $1,000 face value bond with a quoted price of 97 is selling for
a. $1,000.
b. $970.
c. $907.
d. $97.

b. $970.
If the market interest rate is greater than the contractual interest rate, bonds will sell
a. at a premium.
b. at face value.
c. at a discount.
d. only after the stated interest rate is increased.

c. at a discount.
Premium on Bonds Payable
a. has a debit balance.
b. is a contra account.
c. is considered to be a reduction in the cost of borrowing.
d. is deducted from bonds payable on the balance sheet.

c. is considered to be a reduction in the cost of borrowing.
The total cost of borrowing is increased only if the
a. bonds were issued at a premium.
b. bonds were issued at a discount.
c. bonds were sold at face value.
d. market interest rate is less than the contractual interest rate on that date.

b. bonds were issued at a discount.
The present value of a $10,000, 5-year bond, will be less than $10,000 if the
a. contractual interest rate is less than the market interest rate.
b. contractual interest rate is greater than the market interest rate.
c. bond is convertible.
d. contractual interest rate is equal to the market interest rate.

a. contractual interest rate is less than the market interest rate.
The sale of bonds above face value
a. is a rare occurrence.
b. will cause the total cost of borrowing to be less than the bond interest paid.
c. will cause the total cost of borrowing to be more than the bond interest paid.
d. will have no net effect on Interest Expense by the time the bonds mature.

b. will cause the total cost of borrowing to be less than the bond interest paid.
Bond interest paid is
a. higher when bonds sell at a discount.
b. lower when bonds sell at a premium.
c. the same whether bonds sell at a discount or a premium.
d. higher when bonds sell at a discount and lower when bonds sell at a premium.

c. the same whether bonds sell at a discount or a premium.
The current carrying value of Kane’s $900,000 face value bonds is $897,000. If the bonds are retired at 103, what would be the amount Kane would pay its bondholders?
a. $897,000
b. $900,000
c. $906,000
d. $927,000

d. $927,000
When bonds are converted into common stock,
a. the market price of the stock on the date of conversion is credited to the Common Stock account.
b. the market price of the bonds on the date of conversion is credited to the Common Stock account.
c. the market price of the stock and the bonds is ignored when recording the conversion.
d. gains or losses on the conversion are recognized.

c. the market price of the stock and the bonds is ignored when recording the conversion.
On March 31, 2014, $5,000,000 of 6%, 10-year bonds payable, dated December 31, 2013, are issued. Interest on the bonds is payable semiannually each June 30 and December 31. The total amount received (including accrued interest) by the issuing corporation is $5,060,000. Which of the following is correct?
a. The bonds were issued at a premium.
b. The amount of cash paid to bondholders on the next interest date, June 30, 2013, is $300,000.
c. The amount of cash paid to bondholders on the next interest date, June 30, 3013, is $50,000.
d. The bonds were issued at a discount.

d. The bonds were issued at a discount.
Farris Company borrowed $800,000 from BankTwo on January 1, 2012 in order to expand its mining capabilities. The five-year note required annual payments of $208,349 and carried an annual interest rate of 9.5%. What is the amount of expense Farris must recognize on its 2013 income statement?
a. $76,000
b. $63,427
c. $56,206
d. $49,659

b. $63,427

is a form of potential energy, can be transformed to the bonds of ATP
the energy located in the bonds of food molecules
thermal energy, kinetic energy, molecular movement
heat is
the amount of useful energy decreases, some energy is lost as heat
whenever energy in transformed
mechanical energy
chewing food
electrical/ chemical energy
vision (two types)
mechanical energy
bending your fingers to make a fist
chemical energy
breaking the bonds of ATP molecules to energize your muscle cells to make that fist
radiant energy
lying under a sunlamp
an electrically charged atom or group of atoms
anything that has mass and takes up space
a unique substance composed of atoms having the same atomic number
negatively charged particles, forming part of an atom
subatomic particles that determine an atom’s chemicalbehavior or bonding ability
the ability to do work
the smallest particle of a compound, formed when atoms combine chemically
positivsly charged particles forming part of an atom
names given to the electron shell that contains the most reactice electrons
neutrons, protons
subatomic particles responsible for most of an atom’s mass
Na + and K + are needed for nerve cells to conduct electrical impulses T/F
the atomic number of oxygen is 8. therefore oxygen atoms always contain 8 neutrons T/F
the greater the distance of an electron from the necules, the less energy it has T/F
electrons are located in more or less designated areas of space around the nucleus called orbitals T/F
an unstable atom that decomposes and emits energy is called retroactive T/F
iron is necessary for oxygen transport in red blood cells T/F
the most abundant negative ion in extracellular fluid is calcium T/F
the element essential for the production of thryoid hormones is magnesium
iodine- definition
calcium is found as a salt in bones and teeth
A + B yields AB
AB + CD yields AD + CB
XY yields X + Y
a compound in which oppositely charged ions attract each other (atoms gain or lose electrons to form ions)
sharing of electrons

the orderly structure shown by living things
is the basic structural and functional unit of all living organisms
cell theory
one of the fundamental ideas of modern biology and has 3 principles 1) cells are basic unit of structure 2) have one or more cells 3) arise from previously existing cells
eukaryotic cells
contains a nucleus and other organelles that are the bound by membranes, also referred to as membrane bound organelles
-multicellular organisms
-have a nucleus
-have a membrane bound organelles
-unicellular organisms
-contains organelles
is a distinct central organelle that contains the cell’s general material in the form of DNA
plasma membrane
us a special boundary helps control what enters and leaves the cell
prokaryotic cell
cells without a nucleus or other membrane bound organelles
-do not have membrane young organelles
-have lose strands of DNA
-unicellular organisms
-contains organelles
three main ideas of the cell theory
1)All living organisms are composed of one or more cells
2) Cells are the basic units of structure and organization of all living organisms
3)Cells arise only from previously existing cells, with cells passing copies of the genetic material onto their daughter cells
an atom or group of atoms with a positive or negative electric charge
fluid mosaic model
a plasma membrane with components constantly in motion, sliding past one another within the lipid bilayer
phospholipid bilayer
two layers of phospholipids are arranged tail-to-tail. In the plasma membrane, phospholipids arrange themselves in a way that allows plasma membrane to exist in the watery environment
selective permeability
by which a membrane allows some substances to pass through while keeping others out
transport protein
more needed substances or waste materials through the plasma membrane and therefore contributes to the selective permeability of the plasma membrane
Five ways that the membrane can deal with materials
1) keeping molecules out
2) allowing molecules in at any time
3)allowing molecules only at certain times
4)allowing molecules in only in limited amounts
5)expelling wastes from inside the shell
a protein that speeds up the rate of a chemical reaction
cell structures
1)cell wall
related to genetic material
food, storage, and waste
1) golgi apparatus
3)endoplasmic reticulum
contains chlorophyll (photosynthesis)
membrane-bound organelle that converts fuel into energy that is available to the rest of the cell
temporary storage of materials
important for all cell division
short, hairlike projection that functions in cell movement wave-like motion
long, tail-like projection with whip-like motion that helps cells move
the environment inside the plasma membrane is a semi-fluid material. Is in prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells
is a supporting network of long, thin protein fibers that form a framework for the cell and provide an anchor for the organelles inside a cell
in eukaryotic cells — central bound organelle that directs cell processes; contains the cell’s DNA; stores information for cell growth, function, and reproduction
nuclear envelope
double membrane that surrounds the nucleus
helps manufacture proteins
produces ribosomes inside the nucleus of eukaryotic cells
endoplasmic reticulum
highly folded membrane system in eukaryotic cells that is the site for protein and lipid synthesis
golgi apparatus
flattened stacks of tubular membranes that modifies, sorts, and packages proteins into vesicles and transports them to other organelles or out of the cell
membrane-bound vesicle for temporary storage of materials such as food, enzymes, and wastes
vesicles that contains substances that digest excess or worn-out organelles
organelle that plays a role in cell division and is made of microtubules
converts fuel particles (sugars) into useable energy
double membrane organelle that captures light energy and converts it to chemical energy through photosynthesis
cell wall
in plants – the rigid barrier that surrounds the outside of the plasma membrane, is made of cellulose, and provides support and protection to the cell
cillia / flagella
projections that allow the cells to move or move to substances along the surfaces along the surface of the cell
plant cells only
-larger vacuoles
-cell walls
Both plant and animal cells
-endoplasmic reticulum
-golgi apparatus
-plasma membrane
animal cells only
-smaller vacuoles
energy-requiring process by which large substances from the outside environment can enter a cell
active transport
movement of substance from a region of lower concentration to a region of high concentration
net movement of particles from an area where there are many particles of the substance to an area where there are fewer
hypertonic solution
a solution that has a higher concentration of solutes outside the cell than inside the cell, causing water to leave the cell by osmosis (cell will shrink).
isotonic solution
a solution in which the inside of the cell and the solution it is in have the same concentration of water and solutes as the outside, resulting in the cell retaining its normal shape because there is no net movement of water
energy-requring process by which a cell expels wastes and secrets substances at the plasma membrane
diffusion of water across a selectively permeable membrane
facillitated diffusion
form of transport that uses transport proteins to move other ions and small molecules across the plasma membrane
dynamic equilibrium
condition in which there is continuous movement but overall change in concentration
hypotonic solution
a solution that has a lower concentration of solutes outside than inside the cell, causing water to flow into the cell by osmosis (cell will swell)
water and the plasma membrane
-water flows freely into and out of the cell
-osmosis is the diffusion of water across a selectively permeable membrane
-flow through helps create and maintain homeostasis
-homeostasis is organism maintains conditions suitable for life
name the invention that helped scientists discover the cell
the microscope
tell why hooke called the structures he saw in the cork cellulae (“small rooms”)
the boxlike cells of cork reminded him of the cells in which monks live at a monasty
name the microscope that uses a series of magnifying lenses
compound light microscope
The _______ includes the following.
cell theory
All living organisms are composed of one or more _______.
Cells are basic unit of structure and organization of all living___________.
Cells arise only from previously existing cells, with cells passing copies of their ________ onto their _________.
genetic material to their daughter cells
E or P organisms that break down molecules to generate energy
p and e
E or P organisms that have cells lacking internal membrane – bound organelles
E or P organisms whose cells do not have a nuclei
E or P organisms that have either unicellular or multicellular
E or P organisms that are generally unicellular
E or P organisms that have cells containing organelles
E or P organisms that have plasma membranes
p and e
The process of maintaing balance inside a cell
A boundary between a cells and its environment
plasma membrane
the feature of the plasma membrane that keeps some substances out
selectively permeable
separates prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells form the watery environment in which they exist
plasma membrane
The quality of a plasma membrane that allows oxygen and glucose to move in
selectively permeable
Maintained by the plasma membrane
makes up most of the molecules in the plasma membrane
a molecule that has a glycerol backbone, two fatty acid chains, and a phosphate – containing compound
move substances through the plasma membrane
transport protein
two layers of phospholipids arranged tail-to-tail
phospholipid bilayer
the phospholipid “sea” in which embedded substances float
fluid mosaic model
light vs. electron microscope
light- color and living things
electron- no color dead things
specialized internal cell structure that carries out specific cell functions such as protein synthesis and energy transformation
The _______ is a structure that surrounds a cell and helps control what enters and exits the cell.
plasma membrane
A _______ has membrane – bound organelles
_____are basic units of all organisms
If a microscope has a series of three lenses that magnify individually 5x, 5x, and 7x what is the total magnification of the microscope?
Why might a microscopist, who specializes in the use of microscopes to examine specimens, use a light microscope instead of an electron microscope?
The light microscope can see in color and things that are alive.
A _______ is the basic structure that makes up the plasma membrane.
______ proteins move needed substances or waste materials through the plasma membrane.
________ is the property that allows only some substances in and out of the cell.
selectively permeable
Which situation would increase the fluidity of a phospholipid bilayer?
increasing the number of cholesterol molecules
How does the orientation of the phospholipids in the bilayer allow a cell to interact with its internal and external environments?
polar heads outside the cell
non polar head inside the cell
What might happen to a cell if it no longer could produce cholesterol?
the cells plasma membrane would be less fluid and homeostasis can’t be maintained
______stores wastes
______produces ribosomes
________generates energy for a cell
________sorts proteins into vesicles
Golgi apparatus
Which structure synthesizes proteins that will be used by the cell?
Which id the site of protein synthesis?
endoplasmic reticulum
In which structure would you expect to find a cell wall?
cell from an oak tree
Compare the chloroplast to the mitochondrion.
Chloroplast- double membrane organelle with thylakoids containing chlorophyll (photosynthesis) light energy to chemical energy
Mitochondrion- a membrane bound organelle that makes energy chemical to APT
What factors affect the rate of diffusion?
Which type of transport requires energy input from the cell?
active transport